Question 19: Are not the children as capable of being baptized as of having faith (according to L...

Question 19: Are not the children as capable of being baptized as of having faith (according to Luke 1:41-44; Matthew 18:3; Luke 18:16, 17; 1 Corinthians 7:14, etc.) even though they do not know how to express this with many words as do the adults? Is this not in accordance with the Word (Mark 16:16) that it is not so much a matter of an easily deceptive oral profession of faith as the truth of faith itself?

Answer: There is only one example of this in Scripture. John was moved in his mother’s womb through the Holy Spirit because he was a child of the promise and was to be a forerunner of the Lord. Yet, it is obvious that he could not have been circumcised in his mother’s womb but only after he was born. Despite this, they waited with circumcision until the eighth day. Therefore, even the moving of Saint John did not cause a change in the plan of God concerning circumcision. Rather, he was circumcised like all other children on the eighth day. It is exactly the same with baptism. Even if the children of believing parents were to move in their mothers’ wombs, they would have to wait with baptism until they were born. Again, once they were born, they would have to wait until they were moved by the Holy Spirit to desire baptism with specific words. Only then might they be baptized, because outward water baptism requires an outward expression of desire, as may be seen from Christ himself (Matthew 3:13). This desire must be effected by the true faith in the Lord Jesus. Otherwise, it is not permissible to baptize a child. Salvation is not dependent upon the water, but only upon the faith, which must be proved by love and obedience.