The Call of Abraham

It has been widely taught by learned men, that discrepancies abound in Stephen’s speech before his martyrdom; it, therefore, calls for a few remarks.
It is well to remember, that Acts 6 tells us that Stephen was “full of the Holy Ghost . . . full of faith and power, did great wonders and miracles . . . they were not able to resist the wisdom and the spirit by which he spake . . . and they saw his face as it had been the face of an angel.” We ask, then, was he likely to have spoken with accuracy, or not?
Add to all this, that his faithful speech was before the Sanhedrim, who were well instructed in the history of the people of Israel, and especially as to Moses and Abraham, and the Pentateuch, so that any historical discrepancy would have at once been detected by them. But of such a thing there is not a trace.
Let us now look at some of the charges of modern philosophers. One is, that in Acts 7:4, we are taught concerning Abraham, that the death of his father was after the call, and not, as according to Gen. 11:32, before it. If the accounts of the call of Abraham be carefully examined, no such phrase can be found, as “the call,” because there was evidently more than one. Stephen speaks of the God of glory having appeared to Abraham when he was in Mesopotamia, before he dwelt in Charran, and said,
Get thee out of thy country, and from thy kindred, and come into the land which I shall show thee” (Acts 7:2, 3).
The effect of this was, that he left his country, and, it may be, many of his kindred; but his father accompanied him, and Sarah, and Lot, and dwelt in Haran. There they remained long enough for souls to be gotten in Haran (Gen. 11:31;12:5). Then it seems God called him to get out from his country, kindred, and father’s house, and come into a land that He would show him (Gen. 12:1). The effect of this call was, that he departed out of Haran. This is confirmed by Stephen saying, “from thence [Haran] when his father was dead, he [God] removed him into this land”; showing unquestionably that there was a second interposition on the part of Jehovah. Now, where is there discrepancy between the account in Genesis, and the testimony of Stephen? Nay, rather, Is not the comparison of the two accounts a further testimony to the perfect accuracy of Scripture, and of both having divine authorship?