I was just wondering why did Matthew refer to Jesus as the Son of Man? What is the significance of that phrase because I know that God addressed Ezekiel as "son of man"? (Eze 2:1) If the purpose of the gospel of Matthew was to prove that Jesus was the Messiah shouldn't Matthew have referred to Him as something much greater than just the son of a man. Does son of man really mean son of a man because Jesus was the seed of God, not man? I also remember in Matthew Jesus' disciples refer to Him as "the Christ, the Son of the Living God." But Jesus warns them to not tell anyone that he is the messiah. I just have never understood these thing, so any insight is greatly appreciated. Thank you all so much!
Son of Man?
The real essence of the phrase 'son of man' is not from Ezekiel but from Daniel[color=0000ff]“As concerning the rest of the beasts, they had their dominion taken away: yet their lives were prolonged for a season and time. I saw in the night visions, and, behold, one like the [u]Son of man[b]clouds of heaven[b]clouds of heaven
Matt. 26:64 Jesus saith unto him, Thou hast said: nevertheless I say unto you, Hereafter shall ye see the Son of man sitting on the right hand of power, and coming in the [b]clouds of heaven
Rev. 1:7 Behold, [b]he cometh with clouds
