TaylorOtwell wrote:
[b]How unwilling men are to admit their depravity....[/b]1: What do you think? Were Adam and Eve free moral beings, fully able to decide between obeying and disobeying God without any predetermined secret eternal will of God preempting their freedom to choose right from wrong?
[b]According to Revelation 13:8, the Lamb was slain from the foundation of the world, and according to 1st Peter 1:19-20, Christ (the Messiah) was foreordained before the foundation of the world. How could a Savior be fore-ordained if God had not decreed that there would be a Fall?[/b]
Not by "decreeing", but by
[b]knowing[/b] that there would be a Fall.
It would be rediculous for God to decree anything that HE hates.
a) If not, is there any way that God himself is not responsible for their sin and "the Fall"?Yes. Deut 29:29. It's not our job to pry into the secret things God. We know that God has ordained all that has happened in history, for he is sovereign, yet he has remained pure and holy. Man is completely responsible for his own sin.
By answering this question you are saying that God had a predetermined secret eternal will of God preempting their freedom to choose right from wrong.
Then you just say that we are not suposed to inquire about it?
Why are we not suposed to inqure of God's seeming injustices?
2: Were Adam and Eve either totally or partialy depraved before "the Fall"?[b]No. God saw that things were good.[/b]
3: What about immediately after "the Fall"?
[b]Yes. They immediately shifted blame on who was at fault in the sin. Adam blamed Eve and even blamed God by declaring that it was the women whom God gave him who made him sin. Eve shifts blame to the devil.[/b]
This is no proofe that they just became depraved.
5: Were Cain and Able (and, more crucially, are we ourselves)"constitutionally different" from Adam and Eve in respect to any innate inclination to sin? If so, in what way?[b]Yes. Mankind, prior to the regeneration of the Holy Spirit is now completely devoid of all good. Even his good works are tainted by selfish ends.[/b]
Please, suport your statements with Scripture.
Prove that your reasonings are frome a "sinful nature" instead of the reason that men sin only because they do not love Christ.
6: Is there anything in the Genesis account or in the whole of Scripture specifically stating that some "constitutional change" in human nature took place between the first created generation and the first procreated generation? (We're not talking here about any imputed sin, but a fundamental difference in human nature itself.)[b]Yes. Romans 7:18 Paul declares that in his flesh dwells no good thing. This could hardly be said of Adam at the creation since in Genesis 1:31 God declares all things very good. Therefore, there was a constitutional change in the human "flesh" after the fall so that, not only is not very good, it is in fact completely empty of all good. Also, Genesis 5:3 declares that Adam bore a sin in his own likeness and image... not God's.[/b]
Romans 7:18 is stating that "Being in the flesh" or "doing anything from the flesh" the ir nothing of virtue.
Paul is not talking about what the flesh is made of or what ever is "in" the fleash.
Just as Paul said in
[b]Romans 7:14[/b] For we know that the law is spiritual, but I am soulish,
[b][u]living after[/u] the flesh[/b], having been sold into slavery to my own unlawful effections.
[b]Genesis 5:3[/b] [color=990000]And Adam...
...begat a son in his own likeness, after his image; and called his name Seth:[/color]
It does not say that Adam begat sons and daughters after his image in verse 4 .
This is because the author wanted to make a distinction from seth in verse 3 and the others in verse 4.
What is the distinction?
Adam repented and his relationship was restore with God, he is now righteous. Cain was not in Adam's image & likeness because he did not repent. The lineage of cain is unrighteous: the lineage of Seth is righteous.
The lineage of Seth brough Noah & he was righteous.
It does not even say that Cain was "after his image".
If it is as some imply that Adam's image is now sinful in contrast to that of when God made Adam & Eve in His image & After His likeness; Then it would surely say that Adam begat Cain "after his image"; and it wouldn’t make a distinction between Seth in verse 3 and the others in verse 4.
However, it only says that seth & him only is "after his image".
7: Is there any passage suggesting that Adam and Eve, themselves, were "constitiutionally different" once expelled from the Garden?[b]The tree of knowledge of good and evil includes an experiential knowledge of good and evil. Adam and Eve now knew good and evil because they were in fact evil.[/b]
They were not "evil" but only guilty.
[b]Genesis 2:7 declares that they would surely die, compare with Ephesians 2:1 which says we are dead in trespasses and sins. After the fall, Adam and Eve became slaves of sin.
[/b]
Genesis 2:7 is phtsical death, Ephesians 2:1 is spiritual death.
Spiritaul death is only a severed relationship from God, nothing else.
One's own sin severes the relationship with God, not a distant relitive.
8: If you believe they were inclined toward good before "the Fall," or created morally neutral, do you believe that as they left the Garden they were from then on inclined toward evil?[b] Yes[/b]
Why and/or how so?
9: If the so-called "Fall" (replete with its assumed implications regarding original sin, depravity, and the lack of free will ) is the supposed cause of our sins, what explains Adam and Eve's sin prior to "the Fall" when (presumably) they had free will unfettered by either original sin or depravity?[b]Mankind still has free will. However, that free will is only free in the sense of the desires of the person using it.[/b]
Fact is, one is able to choose his own desires.
Mankind is completely devoid of any desires for good and even his "good" desires are tainted by selfishness (dead in trespasses and sins).
Proof please.
Don't give the reason of a severed relationship with God(dead in trespasses and sins).
Because God commands us to have a relationship with Him, therefore, we are able to desire one.
Just as in reality, it is unjust for God to command an inability.
Fact is that all mankind is [b]not[/b] devoid of any desires for good.
10: Was "the Fall" predestined by God's eternal secret will in order that mankind would be innately depraved and sinful for whatever purpose God intends? Or did "the Fall" occur without God's foreknowledge and foreordination?[b]The Fall was predestined and allowed by God for the purpose of magnifying His name through saving man by Christ Jesus.[/b]
Your saying that God
[b]wanted[/b] Adam to fall just so HE could be magnified?
Your saying that God
[b]wanted[/b] something that HE hates just so He could be magnified?
Fact is that God would me magnified if Adam never did sin.
[b]As I mentioned above, if the Messiah was foreordained from the foundation of the world, then the fall that produced man in need of a Messiah must have been predestined from the foundation of the earth.[/b]
Only because God knew about it, not because God wanted it.
11: In the "penalty clause" of Genesis 3:16-19, we are given the specific consequences of Adam and Eve's sin, including the woman's pain in childbirth and the man's having to earn his living by the sweat of his brow. Why do you suppose there is no mention in this passage that everyone born from that point forward would be condemned from the moment of conception?An argument from silence is not a very good argument. There is plenty of other Scripture that indicates that man is born depraved.
Anything having the ascendancy of "sin nature", a constitutionally change of the make-up of all mankind surely would have been mentioned Anything that is so prevalent is always mention at the time of incident.
Something that is so relivent and that changes the coarse of history would have been mentioned there.
Anything that is so prevalent is always mention at the time of incident.
The argument from silence
[b]is[/b] a very good argument!
You have the burden of proof to reveal it.
12: Accepting that by the "curse of Adam" mankind was reduced to struggle and pain in a way never experienced in the Garden, is there anything in Scripture necessarily implying that mankind thereafter was innately more inclined toward evil or sin?[b]This has already been answered by Romans 7:18 and Ephesians 2. See above.[/b]
I have already proven your answer wrong, See above..
[b]Not to mention Psalm 51:5, which, no matter how false teachers try and slice it, still speaks of original sin. Why would David confess his mother's sin in a Psalm that is about confessing his own?[/b]
[b]Psalm. 51:5[/b] "[color=990000]Behold, I was shapen in iniquity, and in sin did my mother conceive me.[/color]"
[b]1:[/b] This scripture is talking about David and his mother. It is not referencing all of humanity.
[b]2:[/b] Taken literally, it is saying that his mother was in some sort of sin when she conceived David.
[b]3:[/b] A strong case can be made that Ps. 51:5 is talking about the defilement of David’s mother, because of a previous marriage to another man.
[b]a[/b] David had two half-sisters named Zeruiah and Abigail (1 Chron. 2:13-16).
[b]b[/b] The father of David’s half sisters was not Jesse but Nahash (2 Sam. 17:25).
[b]c[/b] Nahash was an Ammonite king (1 Sam. 11:1; 1 Sam. 12:12).
[b]d[/b] David’s father was Jesse, not Nahash. But the Father of David’s half sisters were daughts of Nahash. This could explain why Nahash showed kindness towards David (2 Sam. 10:2).
[b]e[/b] David’s mother was most likely the second wife of Jesse. The first wife of Jesse would have been considered superior to his second wife which had been either the concubine or wife of a heathen king.
[b]f[/b] This would explain why David’s half brothers viewed themselves as superior to David, and why David was considered prideful for thinking he was as good as them (1 Sam. 17:28-30).
[b]g[/b] This may explain why David was not called before Samuel the prophet amongst the other sons (1 Sam. 16:11).
[b]h[/b] David’s mother apparently had a good relationship with the Lord (Ps. 86:16; 116:16). But she would have been, in the eyes of Jewish law, considered defiled by her previous relationship with an Ammonite (Num. 25:1,2; Deut. 7:3,4; 1 Kings 11:2-4, Ezra 9:2; Neh. 13:23,25; 2 Cor. 6:14-17).
Points made from [url=http://www.pinpointevangelism.com/libraryoftheologycom/writings/originalsin/Psalms_Fifty_One_Five-WilliamMurray.pdf]A Perspective on Psalm 51:5[/url]
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Why would David confess his mother's sin in a Psalm that is about confessing his own?
I'll get back to you on this one.
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14: Acknowledging the obvious, that Adam's sin introduced condemnation for sin into the world for the first time, is there anything in the fact which necessarily implies that each and every person in Adam's loins would thereafter be born innately condemned? Is there any reason that sin's condemnation could not apply, instead, to each person's own sins, just as with Adam?[b]Romans 5:15 declares that through the sin of one, many be dead. How much clearer do men want it?[/b]
Romans 5:15 talks about physical death, not spiritual death.
Physical death does not damn any one and does not imply guilt, but spiritual death does.
So, please answer the question.
15 In Genesis 4:6-7, God says to Cain: "If you do what is right, will you not be accepted? But if you don't do what is right, sin is crouching at your door, it desires to have you, but you must master it." Was Cain's ability to do right and to master sin limited in any way either by God's eternal secret will or by some effect of "the Fall"?[b]Yes, as an effect of the fall, Cain could not completely master sin.[/b]
Then why would God even tell Cain that if he does well ...ect...?
[b]As to the legitimacy of of God commanding something he could not actually do, the same thing is true of the command to obey the law perfectly. Yes, the law is good. No, we cannot obey it.[/b]
Then why is God angry when we do not obey the law when He knows we can't?
That is equivalent to being angry at a new born for not being able to mow the lawn.
Fact is that all mankind are able to obey the law, but are unwilling to.
They are unwilling because they do not love Christ to do so.
[b]The purpose was to drive men to the mercy of God in Christ.[/b]
So that Christ may show them how to obey the law.
All mankind are able to obey the commands by comming to Christ to do so.
All mankind are able to come to Christ by an inherrent ability to acknowlge the truth with the acting upon that truth.