am quite surprised that so many don't think this is an important issue. God said that He would not hold those guiltless that take His name in vain.
[i]But is it wise or safe for us to suggest here that God is holding everyperson that uses these words as guilty of profaning His name?[/i]And why not? The scripture (Matthew 12:36) still tells us that we will have to give account for idle words we say...Then what? How will you justify the use of these words?
There is some misplaced construing here - even of those who are attempting to get a perspective, how is it that their own confessions are overlooked? Some of us made mention of them ... What is more suprising is that the derivatives or innocuous, common man's language are seemingly more important than the out right - curse words that are used ... of the Lords Name. Jesus Christ as venom and vendetta, as exasperation as ... I shouldn't have to go very far with this. God's Name as well. And even those, as difficult as it might be to accept are they used with intent or is it just the sloppiness of the vernacular of the world at large? I am not speaking of whether or not it is right - That's what makes this somewhat of an overdose, how far to strain at this .... Intent or ignorance?
Connotations. We have traveled down this path before, with the emphasis on the more vulgar varieties - What our response is, what it should be. Some of us find it our duty to correct each and every mention of it when it is uttered in those exasperated tones. Others may take it to silent prayer and ask forgiveness ([i]They know not what they say[/i]).
Made mention earlier and would draw some seemingly contradictions. If we have;
Mat 12:36 But I say unto you, That every idle word that men shall speak, they shall give account thereof in the day of judgment.
We also have prior;
Mat 12:32 And whosoever speaketh a word against the Son of man, it shall be forgiven him:
Albert Barnes;
[b]A word against the Son of man[/b] - The Jews were offended at the humble life and appearance of the Saviour. They reproached him as being a Nazarene - sprung from Nazareth, a place from which no good was expected to proceed; with being a Galilean, from Galilee, a place from which no prophet came, Joh_7:52. Jesus says that reproaches of this kind could be pardoned. Reflections on his poverty, on his humble birth, and on the lowliness of his human nature might be forgiven; but for those which affected his divine nature, accusing him of being in league with the devil, denying his divinity, and attributing the power which manifestly implied divinity to the prince of fallen spirits, there could be no pardon. This sin was a very different thing from what is now often supposed to be the sin against the Holy Spirit. It was a wanton and blasphemous attack on the divine power and nature of Christ. Such a sin God would not forgive.
What was it to be accused\\associated with a Nazarene? A fox (The Lords word to Herod). What about [i]Fool[/i]?
Mat 5:22 But I say unto you, That whosoever is angry with his brother without a cause shall be in danger of the judgment: and whosoever shall say to his brother, Raca, shall be in danger of the council: but whosoever [u]shall say[/u], Thou fool, shall be in danger of hell fire.
1Co 15:36 Thou fool, that which thou sowest is not quickened, except it die:
Luk 12:20 But God said unto him, Thou fool, this night thy soul shall be required of thee: then whose shall those things be, which thou hast provided?
How about the scribes and Pharisees? In some contexts and even our usage is often to spite and slay with intent '[i]Pharisee[/i]'. It is again connotation, intent - purpose, definition - meaning.
Mat 9:3 And, behold, certain of the scribes said within themselves, This man blasphemeth.
In this context they are the accusers, [i]This man blasphemeth[/i]. Because the Lord said [i]Son, be of good cheer; thy sins be forgiven thee.[/i]. And as we all know, the scribes and Phairsses were often the objects of the Lords wrath, His woes to them, His turning their legalistic, petty minds to the deadness of their surface level outward forms and rituals;
Mat 9:4 And Jesus knowing their thoughts said, Wherefore think ye evil in your hearts?
Did I forget [i]hypocrites![/i] ?
What about Nicodemus, a Pharisee and Gamaliel also, not to forget the Apostle Paul. The Lord was invited and dinned with them and still minced no words but the point is - Where do we see Him berating them for the language, the titles, the vernacular they often used against Him? Even Beelzebub, what was His response to such a highly charged accusation?
Mat 12:24 But when the Pharisees heard it, they said, This fellow doth not cast out devils, but by Beelzebub the prince of the devils.
Taken from the account in Mat 10:25;
All the Greek manuscripts, write “Beelzebul,” which undoubtedly is the right form of this word. The other reading came in no doubt from the Old Testament “Baalzebub,” the god of Ekron (2Ki_1:2), which it was designed to express. As all idolatry was regarded as devil worship (Lev_17:7; Deu_32:17; Psa_106:37; 1Co_10:20), so there seems to have been something peculiarly satanic about the worship of this hateful god, which caused his name to be a synonym of Satan. Though we nowhere read that our Lord was actually called “Beelzebul,” He was charged with being in league with Satan under that hateful name (Mat_12:24, Mat_12:26), and more than once Himself was charged with “having a devil” or “demon” (Mar_3:30; Joh_7:20; Joh_8:48). Here it is used to denote the most opprobrious language which could be applied by one to another.
JFB Commentary.
Language folks ... How far, with what connotations and intents and [i]response[/i]. The Lords own example towards it when it was leveled at Him and even His own usage of derogatory terms. Just how far do we wish to take all this? I ask again as it seems the strain is quite exaggerated and we may be showing ourselves petty, legal - inconsequential. The Lord Himself I appeal to here, His conduct and response.