Menu

Was Jesus Sinful? Luther & Sproul

S
sermonindex


[u][b]Let's not turn this into a Calvinist vs. Arminian Debate please!!!!![/b][/u]

Luther and Sproul taught that Jesus became a sinner!!

…“If thou wilt deny him to be a sinner and accursed, deny, also, that he was crucified and dead.” Luther

“But if it is not absurd to confess and believe that Christ was crucified between two thieves, then it is not absurd to say that he was accursed, and of all sinners, the greatest.” Luther

“God, our most merciful Father, sent His only Son into the world, and laid upon him all the sins of all people, saying, be thou Peter, that denier; Paul, that persecutor, blasphemer, and cruel oppressor; David, that adulterer; that sinner which did eat the fruit in Paradise; that thief who hung upon the cross; and, briefly, be thou the person who has committed the sins of all people; see, therefore, that thou pay and satisfy for them” – Luther on the Galatians, Gal_3:13

“The Incarnate Christ who enjoyed intimate personal fellowship with the Father, such as no man had ever enjoyed, was suddenly and completely cut off. Once the sin of man was imputed to Him, He became the virtual incarnation of evil. The load He carried was repugnant to the Father. God is too holy to even look at iniquity. God the Father turned His back upon the Son” R. C. Sproul

Jesus was not sinful during the crucifixion according to:

Lev. 22:20 – blemished offering not acceptable
Ex. 12:5 – the lamb must be without blemish
1 Pet. 1:19 – Lamb without blemish or spot
Heb. 9:14 – offered without spot to God
1 Pet. 3:18 – Christ suffered the just for the unjust
Heb. 13:8 – Jesus the same yesterday, today, and forever
Lk. 23:41 – thief on cross admits Jesus did nothing wrong to deserve it
1 Pet. 2:22-23 – Jesus was not sinning when on the cross

“Jesus was not sinful, or a sinner, in any sense. He did not so take human guilt upon him, that the words sinful and sinner could with any propriety be applied to him. They are not applied to him any way in the Bible; but there the language is undeviating. It is that in all senses he was holy and undefiled. And yet language is often used on this subject which is horrible and only a little short of blasphemy, as if he was guilty, and as if he was even the greatest sinner in the universe. I have heard language used which sent a chill of horror to my heart; and language may be found in the writings of those who hold the doctrine of imputation in the strictest sense, which is only a little short of blasphemy” Albert Barnes


1. Was Jesus sinful or did He become a sinner?

2. Is it heretical to say yes?

[u][b]Let's stay on topic this time![/b][/u]

H
hmmhmm

2Co 5:21 For our sake he made him to be sin who knew no sin, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God - esv

I dont add to that, and i dont remove anything, he never sinned, he showed man how we should live by a perfect example, then he also became sin.... anyone who says different are wrong?

It does not matter much brother, you can try bend your mind in theological somersault as many have before, but if we just stick with scripture all theological arguments are either true or not, scripture is always true no matter what theology says.

He never sinned, and he was made sin for us. No need go further on that issue. rejoice :) he showed us how to live our life, then he became all that is sin and filth and killed it on a cross on our behalf.

i think to many are wrestling with the issue how it all works out, and never go beyond that, when they should be wrestling with the issue now that it is done when Christ has become sin for me, and died for me and lived a perfect life as an example, how should [b]I[/b] walk?

God bless

L
Logic

hmmhmm wrote:
2Co 5:21 For our sake he made him to be sin who knew no sin, so that in him we might become the righteousness of God - esv

I dont add to that, and i dont remove anything, he never sinned, he showed man how we should live by a perfect example, then he also became sin.... anyone who says different are wrong?

"[b]made him to be sin"
(1)[/b]
It cannot be that he was literally sin in the abstract, or sin as such. No one can pretend this. The expression must be, therefore, in some sense, figurative.
[b](2)[/b] Can not mean that “he was made a sinner sin who knew no sin”, for it is said in immediate connection that he "knew no sin," and it is everywhere said that he was holy, harmless, undefiled.
[b](3)[/b] Can not mean that he was, in any proper sense of the word, guilty, for no one is truly guilty who is not personally a transgressor of the Law; and if he was, in any proper sense, guilty, then he deserved to die, and his death could have no more merit than that of any other guilty being; and if he was properly guilty it would make no difference in this respect whether it was by his own fault or by imputation: a guilty being deserves to be punished; and where there is desert of punishment there can be no merit in sufferings.
But all such views as go to make the Holy Redeemer a sinner, or guilty, or deserving of the sufferings which he endured, border on blasphemy, and are abhorrent to the whole strain of the Scriptures. In no form, in no sense possible, is it to be maintained that the Lord Jesus was sinful or guilty. It is a corner stone of the whole system of religion, that in all conceivable senses of the expression he was holy, and pure, and the object of the divine approbation. And every view which fairly leads to the statement that he was in any sense guilty, or which implies that he deserved to die, is "prima facie" a false view, and should be at once abandoned.
Just read Barnes Commentary for this verse.

scripture is always true no matter what theology says.
It must be correctly interpreted!

S
sermonindex

Adam Clarke's Commentary is also very good:
2Co 5:21

For he hath made him to be sin for us - Τον μη γνοντα ἁμαρτιαν, ὑπερ ἡμων ἁμαρτιαν εποιησεν· He made him who knew no sin, (who was innocent), a [u]sin-offering for us[/u]. The word ἁμαρτια occurs here twice: in the first place it means sin, i.e. transgression and guilt; and of Christ it is said, He knew no sin, i.e. was innocent; for not to know sin is the same as to be conscious of innocence; so, nil conscire sibi, to be conscious of nothing against one’s self, is the same as nulla pallescere culpa, to be unimpeachable.

In the second place, it signifies a sin-offering, or sacrifice for sin, and answers to the חטאה chattaah and חטאת chattath of the Hebrew text; which signifies both sin and sin-offering in a great variety of places in the Pentateuch. The Septuagint translate the Hebrew word by ἁμαρτια in ninety-four places in Exodus, Leviticus, and Numbers, where a sin-offering is meant; and where our version translates the word [u]not sin, but an offering for sin[/u]. Had our translators attended to their own method of translating the word in other places where it means the same as here, they would not have given this false view of a passage which has been made the foundation of [u]a most blasphemous doctrine; viz. that our sins were imputed to Christ, and that he was a proper object of the indignation of Divine justice, because he was blackened with imputed sin; and some have proceeded so far in this blasphemous career as to say, that Christ may be considered as the greatest of sinners, because all the sins of mankind, or of the elect, as they say, were imputed to him, and reckoned as his own[/u]. One of these writers translates the passage thus: Deus Christum pro maximo peccatore habuit, ut nos essemus maxime justi, God accounted Christ the greatest of sinners, that we might be supremely righteous. Thus they have confounded sin with the punishment due to sin. Christ suffered in our stead; died for us; bore our sins, (the punishment due to them), in his own body upon the tree, for the Lord laid upon him the iniquities of us all; that is, the punishment due to them; explained by making his soul - his life, an offering for sin; and healing us by his stripes.

But that it may be plainly seen that sin-offering, not sin, is the meaning of the word in this verse, I shall set down the places from the Septuagint where the word occurs; and where it answers to the Hebrew words already quoted; and where our translators have rendered correctly what they render here incorrectly. In Exodus, Exo_29:14, Exo_29:36 : Leviticus, Lev_4:3, Lev_4:8, Lev_4:20, Lev_4:21, Lev_4:24, Lev_4:25, Lev_4:29, Lev_4:32-34; Lev_5:6, Lev_5:7, Lev_5:8, Lev_5:9, Lev_5:11, Lev_5:12; Lev_6:17, Lev_6:25, Lev_6:30; Lev_7:7, Lev_7:37; Lev_8:2, Lev_8:14; Lev_9:2, Lev_9:3, Lev_9:7, Lev_9:8, Lev_9:10, Lev_9:15, Lev_9:22; Lev_10:16, Lev_10:17, Lev_10:19; Lev_12:6, Lev_12:8; Lev_14:13, Lev_14:19, Lev_14:22, Lev_14:31; Lev_15:15, Lev_15:30; Lev_16:3, Lev_16:5, Lev_16:6, Lev_16:9, Lev_16:11, Lev_16:15, Lev_16:25, Lev_16:27; Lev_23:19 : Numbers, Num_6:11, Num_6:14, Num_6:16; Num_7:16, Num_7:22, Num_7:28, Num_7:34, Num_7:40, Num_7:46, Num_7:52, Num_7:58, Num_7:70, Num_7:76, Num_7:82, Num_7:87; Num_8:8, Num_8:12; Num_15:24, Num_15:25, Num_15:27; Num_18:9; Num_28:15, Num_28:22; Num_29:5, Num_29:11, Num_29:16, Num_29:22, Num_29:25, Num_29:28, Num_29:31, Num_29:34, Num_29:38.

Besides the above places, it occurs in the same signification, and is properly translated in our version, in the following places: -
2 Chronicles, 2Ch_29:21, 2Ch_29:23, 2Ch_29:24 : Ezra, Ezr_6:17; Ezr_8:35 : Nehemiah, Neh_10:33 : Job, Job_1:5 : Ezekiel, Eze_43:19, Eze_43:22, Eze_43:25; Eze_44:27, Eze_44:29; Eze_45:17, Eze_45:19, Eze_45:22, Eze_45:23, Eze_45:25. In all, one hundred and eight places, which, in the course of my own reading in the Septuagint, I have marked.

T
TaylorOtwell

I guess main question I would have for Clarke is why did Paul use the same Greek word for sin (Hamartia) in both instances of "sin" in 2nd Corinthians 5:21?

If you apply his logic that it really means sin-offering in this case, the verse wouldn't make sense: "For he hath made him to be sin-offering for us, [b]who knew no sin-offering (?)[/b]; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him."

Paul used the same Greek word, separated by only 4 other words, and it really means two completely different things?

With care in Christ...

R
roaringlamb

I copied this from Robertson's Word Pictures-
[i]2Co 5:21
Him who knew no sin (ton mē gnonta hamartian). Definite claim by Paul that Jesus did not commit sin, had no personal acquaintance (mē gnonta, second aorist active participle of ginōskō) with it. Jesus made this claim for himself (Joh_8:46). This statement occurs also in 1Pe_2:22; Heb_4:15; Heb_7:26; 1Jo_3:5. Christ was and is “a moral miracle” (Bernard) and so more than mere man.
He made to be sin (hamartian epoiēsen). The words “to be” are not in the Greek. “Sin” here is the substantive, not the verb. God “treated as sin” the one “who knew no sin.” But he knew the contradiction of sinners (Heb_12:3). We may not dare to probe too far into the mystery of Christ’s suffering on the Cross, but this fact throws some light on the tragic cry of Jesus just before he died: “My God, My God, why didst thou forsake me?” (Mat_27:46).[/i]

I wonder if because we have differing views on imputation if that is why the passage looks so entirely different?

R
roaringlamb

And since Clarke and Barnes are brought to bear on this(as they are more Wesleyan in thought), I thought it would be fair to bring Calvin in as well. Here is what he has to say,

[i]2Co 5:21
21.Him who knew no sin. Do you observe, that, according to Paul, there is no return to favor with God, except what is founded on the sacrifice of Christ alone? Let us learn, therefore, to turn our views in that direction, whenever we desire to be absolved from guilt. He now teaches more clearly, what we adverted to above — that God is propitious to us, when he acknowledges us as righteous. For these two things are equivalent — that we are acceptable to God, and that we are regarded by him as righteous.
To know no sin is to be free from sin. He says, then, that Christ, while he was entirely exempt from sin, was made sin for us. It is commonly remarked, that sin here denotes an expiatory sacrifice for sin, and in the same way the Latin’s term it, piaculum (566) Paul, too, has in this, and other passages, borrowed this phrase from the Hebrews, among whom אשם (asham) denotes an expiatory sacrifice, as well as an offense or crime. (567) But the signification of this word, as well as the entire statement, will be better understood from a comparison of both parts of the antithesis. Sin is here contrasted with righteousness, when Paul teaches us, that we were made the righteousness of God, on the ground of Christ’s having been made sin. Righteousness, here, is not taken to denote a quality or habit, but by way of imputation, on the ground of Christ’s righteousness being reckoned to have been received by us. What, on the other hand, is denoted by sin? It is the guilt, on account of which we are arraigned at the bar of God. As, however, the curse of the individual was of old cast upon the victim, so Christ’s condemnation was our absolution, and with his stripes we are healed. (Isa_53:5.)[/i]

M
MaryJane

Greetings

I talked the is over with my children a while ago during one of our Bible studies. I spent a good while explaining to them how Jesus died because of our sin and what that meant to us. My youngest son had a kind of strange look on his face so I asked him if he understood what I was saying about Jesus. He said, "Yes mom. Its like when I lied and got into the cookies before dinner and said I didn't. That was my sin against God cause I told the lie, but Jesus got the punishment for that from God instead of me."
Granted he was a little boy at the time and his understanding was limited but he still knew that it was his sin that Jesus was paying a price for, not Jesus sinning himself or Jesus being turned into his sin.

Sometimes I think as adults we make things way to complicated.

God Bless
mj

L
Logic

roaringlamb wrote:
Righteousness, here, is not taken to denote a quality or habit, but by way of imputation, on the ground of Christ’s righteousness being reckoned to have been received by us. What, on the other hand, is denoted by sin? It is the guilt, on account of which we are arraigned at the bar of God.
TaylorOtwell wrote:
I guess main question I would have for Clarke is why did Paul use the same Greek word for sin (Hamartia) in both instances of "sin" in 2nd Corinthians 5:21?

If you apply his logic that it really means sin-offering in this case, the verse wouldn't make sense: "For he hath made him to be sin-offering for us, [b]who knew no sin-offering (?)[/b]; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him."

Paul used the same Greek word, separated by only 4 other words, and it really means two completely different things?

Okay, then Jesus was either was literally sin
or He was guilty.
If [b]Jesus became actaully guilty[/b], then He deserved to die, and His death could have no more merit than that of any other guilty being; and if He was properly guilty it would make no difference in this respect whether it was by his own fault or by imputation: a guilty being deserves to be punished; and where there is desert of punishment there can be no merit in sufferings.
This is truely rediculous to say that Jesus became guilty!

If Jesus became actaully sin its self. Then Jesus became a [b]verb[/b], a transgression of the law (1John 3:4).
Jesus became a literal lack of faith (Romans 14:23).
Jesus became All unrighteousness (1John 5:17)

For Jesus to literal become sin makes no sence at all.

R
roaringlamb

For Jesus to literal become sin makes no sence at all.

But that is what the text says.

"God made Him sin who knew no sin..."

It is the same as the lambs and goats of the Old Covenant being made sin for the sinner. That is why the offerer had to place their hand on the head of the animal and identify with the offering.

The animal was not sinful, but was made that person's sin and by that offering propitiation happened.

I don't think anyone is saying Jesus became guilty of sinning at all, we are simply saying what the verse says. And the word for sin in that passage is not a verb, it is a noun so it's not saying He sinned, but He was made sin.

How I don't know, but that is the mystery of imputation and I would rather marvel more at how I could be made righteous by His righteousness being imputed to me!

But that(imputation) seems to be the issue that divides us, so I don't know what to say.

L
Leo_Grace


MaryJane wrote:
Greetings

I talked the is over with my children a while ago during one of our Bible studies. I spent a good while explaining to them how Jesus died because of our sin and what that meant to us. My youngest son had a kind of strange look on his face so I asked him if he understood what I was saying about Jesus. He said, "Yes mom. Its like when I lied and got into the cookies before dinner and said I didn't. That was my sin against God cause I told the lie, but Jesus got the punishment for that from God instead of me."
Granted he was a little boy at the time and his understanding was limited but he still knew that it was his sin that Jesus was paying a price for, not Jesus sinning himself or Jesus being turned into his sin.

Sometimes I think as adults we make things way to complicated.

God Bless
mj

This is the best post in this thread. Thank you, MaryJane. Too many wise men spoil the thread ;-)

S
sermonindex

"If Jesus became actaully guilty, then He deserved to die, and His death could have no more merit than that of any other guilty being; and if He was properly guilty it would make no difference in this respect whether it was by his own fault or by imputation: a guilty being deserves to be punished; and where there is desert of punishment there can be no merit in sufferings.
This is truely rediculous to say that Jesus became guilty!

If Jesus became actaully sin its self. Then Jesus became a verb, a transgression of the law (1John 3:4).
Jesus became a literal lack of faith (Romans 14:23).
Jesus became All unrighteousness (1John 5:17)

For Jesus to literal become sin makes no sence at all." logic

I don't see this being said at all logic. Who is saying that Jesus was literally sinful and literally guilty?

Can those who have posted here clarify if Logic is correct in speaking for you? Whoever is saying that Jesus is literally sinful (as in He commited all kinds of sin) and literally guilty (just like we would be) of that sin please speak up.

A spotless lamb was sacrificed for the remission of sin in the OT. Whatever was sacrificed, it was something WITHOUT SPOT OR BLEMISH. This was a type and shadow. God foreknew that His lamb would come and fulfill the law in perfection. Otherwise it's not a type or a shadow. In the NT Jesus was called 'the Lamb of God' meaning the sacrificial lamb for the remission of sins. In order for Him to be spotless, He had to be in perfect obedience and innocent of the sin of humanity just as the OT sacrificial lamb had nothing to do with guilt, as a lamb cannot sin. Something innocent died for the guilty. This is the cross.

The perfect sacrifice that took away the 'sins of the world' was the FINAL SACRIFICE. The cross called for a sacrifice without blemish just as God did in the OT. Therefore the obedience of Christ was not just for Himself, it was a requirement for the innocent lamb, who knew no sin, to be made a sin offering just like the sin offering in the OT. Did the OT lamb know sin when it was sacrificed? These things are indeed relative to the mystery of the cross. If Jesus sins, He is no longer spotless. And if Jesus sins, what blood would cleanse Him of His crime? For 'without the shedding of blood there is no remission of sin'. What blood would be good enough to cleanse Christ of a sin that He chose if His blood was foretold to be the blood that atoned for all of us? That's what wouldn't make sense. His obedience wasn't just for His own sake, He knew what was at stake.

L
Logic

roaringlamb wrote:
For Jesus to literal become sin makes no sense at all.
But that is what the text says.

"God made Him sin who knew no sin..."

It is the same as the lambs and goats of the Old Covenant being made sin for the sinner. That is why the offerer had to place their hand on the head of the animal and identify with the offering.

The animal was not sinful, but was made that person's sin and by that offering propitiation happened.

Do you ever interpret the Bible according to reality?
Your making sin to be something which it is not.

Sin is not a substance for anything/anyone to become.
Sin is a verb; if it is a noun, then it is a description of the verb.

When Paul talks about sin in Romans 7, it is not a substance but a description of the unlawful desires which are in the flesh.

If sin is anything else, it can not be condemnable.
Sin must be repentable in order for it to be called sin.

L
Logic

ccrider wrote:

"For Jesus to literal become sin makes no sence at all." logic

I don't see this being said at all logic.

It is what roaringlamb is implying, taking the verse at first glance, "Jesus became sin"; literally sin.

Can those who have posted here clarify if Logic is correct in speaking for you? Whoever is saying that Jesus is literally sinful
Not "sinful", but sin.

R
roaringlamb

Do you ever interpret the Bible according to reality?

I think I do, I mean looking at what the words actually mean and the forms of the words that are used. That's probably reality.

Sin is not a substance

I disagree. If I punch someone in the face, they bear the marks of sin(noun) because I sinned(verb). Sin has taken on substance.But that is not what we are talking about here.

Sin is a verb; if it is a noun, then it is a description of the verb.

Sorry that's the way the structure of the word is in Greek. It is "hamartian" which is a noun. Which means Christ was made something.

You can't get around it, there is noun there that has to be dealt with.

S
sermonindex

Who is saying that Jesus was literally sinful and literally guilty?

Luther said Jesus became a sinner:

…“If thou wilt deny him to be a sinner and accursed, deny, also, that he was crucified and dead.” Luther

Sproul said Jesus became sinful:

"Once the sin of man was imputed to Him, He became the virtual incarnation of evil. The load He carried was repugnant to the Father." Sproul

Calvin said Jesus became guilty:

"Christ’s having been made sin.... What, on the other hand, is denoted by sin? It is the guilt..." John Calvin

S
sermonindex

Luther said Jesus became a sinner:

…“If thou wilt deny him to be a sinner and accursed, deny, also, that he was crucified and dead.” Luther

Sproul said Jesus became sinful:

"Once the sin of man was imputed to Him, He became the virtual incarnation of evil. The load He carried was repugnant to the Father." Sproul

Calvin said Jesus became guilty:

"Christ’s having been made sin.... What, on the other hand, is denoted by sin? It is the guilt..." John Calvin" truefaithdav

Uh huh. And are they on this thread?

S
sermonindex

Sin is not a substance

I disagree. If I punch someone in the face, they bear the marks of sin(noun) because I sinned(verb). Sin has taken on substance.

If you punch someone and give the a black eye, that doesn't mean that sin is now a substance. A black eye is not sin! You can get a black eye by accident without a punch. It is not the black eye that is a sin, it is the motive of a persons heart who punches you that is sinful!

Sin is a state of the will, a disobedient state. That will manifest into actions, but sin is never a substance or a quality of matter. That is Gnosticism.

Is sin a animal, vegetable, or mineral? Is sin a gas, solid, or liquid? Neither of these. Sin is a choice.

Sin is the violation of God's law. God's law does not tell us what type of substance to have! God's law tells us what type of choices we should make and what type of choices we shouldn't make. The moral quality of sinfulness can only be prescribed to choices, but it cannot be prescribed to substance or matter.

R
roaringlamb

logic and truefaithsav,

Here is what I don't understand about your arguments.

Why would you want to rid the Gospel of its sweetest gift? Christ's righteousness is imputed to us, and we should rejoice. All who are poor and weary can rejoice that Christ is their sacrifice and mediator.

But on the other hand it seems that those who would be just because of what they do or their moral record would be offended that a righteousness from outside of them should be given to them.

Again it is like the parable of the Prodigal, the "bad" son is met by the father and showered with affection in spite of his badness while the elder brother was pouting because he thought his moral record should be of value, "all this time I have served you..."

Notice how the one who receives rejoices, but the one who is offended by the receiving of something he didn't deserve is angered and ultimately never comes into the party.

S
sermonindex

Luther said Jesus became a sinner:

…“If thou wilt deny him to be a sinner and accursed, deny, also, that he was crucified and dead.” Luther

Sproul said Jesus became sinful:

"Once the sin of man was imputed to Him, He became the virtual incarnation of evil. The load He carried was repugnant to the Father." Sproul

Calvin said Jesus became guilty:

"Christ’s having been made sin.... What, on the other hand, is denoted by sin? It is the guilt..." John Calvin"

Uh huh. And are they on this thread

Did you even read the first post?

This thread is about those quotes!

Are those quotes true or false? Are they orthodoxy or heretical?

R
roaringlamb

Sin is a state of the will, a disobedient state. That will manifest into actions, but sin is never a substance or a quality of matter. That is Gnosticism.

So Jesus was made "a state of the will"? That really doesn't make sense.

Let's stick to this passage we are looking at for the time being and see if sin is something more than what you and logic are making it. Because it sure seems that Christ being made sin means He was made sin(substance) without actually being sinful.

So the reverse of that would be that we are [i]made righteous[/i] without [i]becoming righteous[/i]. Fruit will be produced of course, but that is another text.

S
sermonindex

"Did you even read the first post?

This thread is about those quotes!"truefaithsav

Listen pal you quoted my post. Did you read it? "Who is saying that Jesus was literally sinful and literally guilty?"

You were responding to my post. I said "can the people here clarify". Are Luther and Calvin here? I was talking to those on the thread to clarify, not the dead. Perhaps if you weren't so bent on having a smart alic response to each thing written then you would understand what exactly you are responding to.

S
sermonindex

Jesus who knew no sin (choice) became sin (sin offering) for us, that we might be might the righteousness of God (receive the forgiveness that comes from God).

Very simple.

I started a new thread explaining how "imputed righteousness" is synonomous with being forgiven and accepted.

"But the flesh of the bullock, and his skin, and his dung, shalt thou burn with fire without the camp, it is a SIN OFFERING". That is how it is translated even though the Hebrew simply says "SIN". But obviously the flesh and skin of the bullock was not SIN, it was a SIN OFFERING!

OTHER PASSAGES WHERE "SIN" IS TRANSLATED "SIN-OFFERING":

, Exo_29:14, Exo_29:36 : Leviticus, Lev_4:3, Lev_4:8, Lev_4:20, Lev_4:21, Lev_4:24, Lev_4:25, Lev_4:29, Lev_4:32-34; Lev_5:6, Lev_5:7, Lev_5:8, Lev_5:9, Lev_5:11, Lev_5:12; Lev_6:17, Lev_6:25, Lev_6:30; Lev_7:7, Lev_7:37; Lev_8:2, Lev_8:14; Lev_9:2, Lev_9:3, Lev_9:7, Lev_9:8, Lev_9:10, Lev_9:15, Lev_9:22; Lev_10:16, Lev_10:17, Lev_10:19; Lev_12:6, Lev_12:8; Lev_14:13, Lev_14:19, Lev_14:22, Lev_14:31; Lev_15:15, Lev_15:30; Lev_16:3, Lev_16:5, Lev_16:6, Lev_16:9, Lev_16:11, Lev_16:15, Lev_16:25, Lev_16:27; Lev_23:19 : Numbers, Num_6:11, Num_6:14, Num_6:16; Num_7:16, Num_7:22, Num_7:28, Num_7:34, Num_7:40, Num_7:46, Num_7:52, Num_7:58, Num_7:70, Num_7:76, Num_7:82, Num_7:87; Num_8:8, Num_8:12; Num_15:24, Num_15:25, Num_15:27; Num_18:9; Num_28:15, Num_28:22; Num_29:5, Num_29:11, Num_29:16, Num_29:22, Num_29:25, Num_29:28, Num_29:31, Num_29:34, Num_29:38. 2 Chronicles, 2Ch_29:21, 2Ch_29:23, 2Ch_29:24 : Ezra, Ezr_6:17; Ezr_8:35 : Nehemiah, Neh_10:33 : Job, Job_1:5 : Ezekiel, Eze_43:19, Eze_43:22, Eze_43:25; Eze_44:27, Eze_44:29; Eze_45:17, Eze_45:19, Eze_45:22, Eze_45:23, Eze_45:25.

S
sermonindex

When Isaac was a lad, God told Abraham to take his only son to a place that God would choose and to offer him up as a sacrifice. Abraham put the wood that was necessary for the sacrifice on the back of his son Isaac. Genesis 22:1-6

Because the wood was laid upon him, did the wood become apart of Isaac? Or was he just bearing the load alone?

Because Christ became sin, does it mean that He became a sinner? God forbid, we know that he that continues to sin is of the devil. Christ bore our sins, but did not participate in them. Like the wood, he was only nailed to it, did not become apart of it. The wood typifies the flesh. He was nailed to wood which typifies you and I.

Side note: We are not one through the flesh but through the bodily resurrection of Jesus Christ which produced a New Creature, old things are passed away behold all things have become new.

S
sermonindex

"Jesus who knew no sin (choice) became sin (sin offering) for us, that we might be might the righteousness of God (receive the forgiveness that comes from God).

Very simple."truefaithsav

Okay. And I simply wanted those on the thread to clarify for themselve what they meant, not what you meant.

L
Logic

roaringlamb wrote:
Sin is a state of the will, a disobedient state. That will manifest into actions, but sin is never a substance or a quality of matter. That is Gnosticism.
So Jesus was made "a state of the will"? That really doesn't make sense.
[color=990000]He who knew no sin[/color] (did not have a will in the state of rebelion/disobediance as to choose to do any sin) [color=990000]became sin[/color] (A sin offering) [color=990000]for us[/color] (so that God may deem us as righteous).

Or according to roaringlam"[color=990000]He who knew no sin[/color] (did not have a will in the state of rebelion/disobediance, or have a rebelious will as to choose to do any sin) [color=990000]became sin[/color] (the state of rebelion/disobediance, or a rebelion of the will as to be the act of any sin) [color=990000]for us[/color]

R
roaringlamb

Or according to roaringlam"He who knew no sin (did not have a will in the state of rebelion/disobediance, or have a rebelious will as to choose to do any sin) became sin (the state of rebelion/disobediance, or a rebelion of the will as to be the act of any sin) for us

Umm where did I say any of that?

And also, are you saying that Christ had a rebellious will? thus implying that He could have sinned? So God can sin?

Do you really want to go down that path again?

And again, you have to deal with the fact that sin in that passage is a noun, it is a thing that Christ was made.

S
sermonindex


truefaithsav wrote:
Jesus who knew no sin (choice) became sin (sin offering) for us, that we might be might the righteousness of God (receive the forgiveness that comes from God).

Very simple.

I started a new thread explaining how "imputed righteousness" is synonomous with being forgiven and accepted.

"But the flesh of the bullock, and his skin, and his dung, shalt thou burn with fire without the camp, it is a SIN OFFERING". That is how it is translated even though the Hebrew simply says "SIN". But obviously the flesh and skin of the bullock was not SIN, it was a SIN OFFERING!

OTHER PASSAGES WHERE "SIN" IS TRANSLATED "SIN-OFFERING":

, Exo_29:14, Exo_29:36 : Leviticus, Lev_4:3, Lev_4:8, Lev_4:20, Lev_4:21, Lev_4:24, Lev_4:25, Lev_4:29, Lev_4:32-34; Lev_5:6, Lev_5:7, Lev_5:8, Lev_5:9, Lev_5:11, Lev_5:12; Lev_6:17, Lev_6:25, Lev_6:30; Lev_7:7, Lev_7:37; Lev_8:2, Lev_8:14; Lev_9:2, Lev_9:3, Lev_9:7, Lev_9:8, Lev_9:10, Lev_9:15, Lev_9:22; Lev_10:16, Lev_10:17, Lev_10:19; Lev_12:6, Lev_12:8; Lev_14:13, Lev_14:19, Lev_14:22, Lev_14:31; Lev_15:15, Lev_15:30; Lev_16:3, Lev_16:5, Lev_16:6, Lev_16:9, Lev_16:11, Lev_16:15, Lev_16:25, Lev_16:27; Lev_23:19 : Numbers, Num_6:11, Num_6:14, Num_6:16; Num_7:16, Num_7:22, Num_7:28, Num_7:34, Num_7:40, Num_7:46, Num_7:52, Num_7:58, Num_7:70, Num_7:76, Num_7:82, Num_7:87; Num_8:8, Num_8:12; Num_15:24, Num_15:25, Num_15:27; Num_18:9; Num_28:15, Num_28:22; Num_29:5, Num_29:11, Num_29:16, Num_29:22, Num_29:25, Num_29:28, Num_29:31, Num_29:34, Num_29:38. 2 Chronicles, 2Ch_29:21, 2Ch_29:23, 2Ch_29:24 : Ezra, Ezr_6:17; Ezr_8:35 : Nehemiah, Neh_10:33 : Job, Job_1:5 : Ezekiel, Eze_43:19, Eze_43:22, Eze_43:25; Eze_44:27, Eze_44:29; Eze_45:17, Eze_45:19, Eze_45:22, Eze_45:23, Eze_45:25.

I like this truefaithsav guy almost as much as Walter. He is just as unruly and dismissive of the moderators (no doubt he shares Walter's and my suspicion that the moderators are Illuminati infiltrators trying to impose One World Churchism on all of us). And no doubt he carries a Chick Publications Soulwinner's Bible (KJV) and wears horn-rimmed glasses and polyester leisure suits - that is, when he is not wearing sackcloth and a "FLEE FROM THE WRATH TO COME!" sandwich board.

By the way, where is Walter? In a thread this hair-splitting and tedious, he normally would have pasted at least couple of mile-long theological treatises by now. I hope nothing terrible has happened.

S
sermonindex

"By the way, where is Walter? In a thread this hair-splitting and tedious, he normally would have pasted at least couple of mile-long theological treatises by now. I hope nothing terrible has happened."loingirder

Come on now, this wasn't necessary nor Christlike. I can't ever see Christ rebuking in this kind of mean spirited sarcasm.

S
sermonindex


ccrider wrote:
"By the way, where is Walter? In a thread this hair-splitting and tedious, he normally would have pasted at least couple of mile-long theological treatises by now. I hope nothing terrible has happened."loingirder

Come on now, this wasn't necessary nor Christlike. I can't ever see Christ rebuking in this kind of mean spirited sarcasm.

No, a Christ-like rebuke is more like "Woe unto you, scribes and pharisees! Hypocrites! Brood of vipers! How shall ye escape the condemnation of hell!"

And then there is "Woe unto ye blind guides, who strain at a gnat and swallow a camel." (That's sarcasm.)

S
sermonindex

I'm sorry that's how you see it, nothing here was directed personally to you to provoke anything.

S
sermonindex


ccrider wrote:
I'm sorry that's how you see it, nothing here was directed personally to you to provoke anything.

Those quotes weren't directed at you, either. I was just demonstrating the flaw in your "you're-not-nice-like-Jesus" remark.

S
sermonindex

You mentioned moderators on the previous page. I'm sure they'll be helping you out soon enough.

S
sermonindex

"Those quotes weren't directed at you, either. I was just demonstrating the flaw in your "you're-not-nice-like-Jesus" remark".

Peace to you.

S
sermonindex


Jesus-is-GOD wrote:
You mentioned moderators on the previous page. I'm sure they'll be helping you out soon enough.

I don't know, the mods around here have pretty long fuses. Remember, this thread started when the mod shut down the first "Luther & Sproul" thread, saying: "This thread is officially in Cal/Arm waters now and will be shut down. Please refrain from these types of discussions on SermonIndex." That's what the moderator said. And what did you guys do? Started it right back up again.

S
sermonindex

For some reason you've triggered a funny memory.
Years ago, I was on one forum where the moderators would take on another account as a member and have lots of "fun" with the other members. :-)

S
sermonindex

To Jesus-is-God:

Yes, I had the same idea. One member takes on multiple "identies", that all "agree" with him/her on every issue. Also, on this thread, as well as several others recently, they all seem to agree with each other 100% of the time--- while the Bible disagrees with them 100% of the time! Maybe we just have one or two "heretics" on this website, instead of 5 or 6!

Just like in the Garden of Eden, when Satan said to Eve:

4. And the serpent said unto the woman,[color=990000][b] Ye shall not surely die:
5. For God doth know that in the day ye eat thereof, then your eyes shall be opened, and ye shall be as gods, knowing good and evil.[/color][/b]

Did Yahweh crush Jesus Christ, the Messaiah, for our sin?

What does the Bible have to say?

Did He, who knew no sin, become sin for us? So much so, that God forsake Him, and could not even look at Him for 3 hours, while He took on all the sin of humanity, from the beginning of time to the end of time. The only catch is, that only those that repent, and believe the Gospel are saved. The rest will have no excuse at the Great White Throne Judgment for the lost:

(Matthew 27:45-46)
45. Now from the sixth hour there was darkness over all the land unto the ninth hour.
46. And about the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, saying, Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani? that is to say, My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?

For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin; that we might be made the righteousness of God in him.
(2 Cor 5:21)

What did Jesus do for us, as our Passover?


1 Cor. 5:7 Jesus is our Passover
The Passover of Mosaic Law:
God commanded, last meal in Egypt before Exodus
10th of the month of Abib: take a lamb or kid, without blemish
14th of month: kill the lamb at evening
sprinkle blood on doorposts and lintel of their houses

roasted the lamb with fire, and eat it with unleavened bread and bitter herbs
ate it in haste, with loins girded, shoes on the feet, and staff in hand, remaining in the house until the morning

burned all that was not eaten, so none was left over

Jesus is our Passover
because of Jesus’ blood which was sprinkled upon us when we obeyed Jesus
(1 Pet. 1:2)
"Elect according to the foreknowledge of God the Father, through sanctification of the spirit, unto obedience and sprinkling of the blood of Jesus Christ: Grace unto you, and peace, be multiplied."

God passes over us , rather than punishing us for our sins – forgiveness – washed in blood of Lamb

(Acts 8:32-35) Philip taught the eunuch about Jesus, that He was a lamb led to slaughter – our "Passover" lamb

32. The place of the scripture which he read was this, He was led as a sheep to the slaughter; and like a lamb dumb before his shearer, so opened he not his mouth: 33. In his humiliation his judgment was taken away: and who shall declare his generation? for his life is taken from the earth. 34. And the eunuch answered Philip, and said, I pray thee, of whom speaketh the prophet this? of himself, or of some other man?
35. Then Philip opened his mouth, and began at the same scripture, and preached unto him Jesus.

What did Jesus do for us as our Passover? (as found in Isaiah 53)
1. Jesus bore our griefs and carried our sorrows!
Is. 53:4 bore our griefs and sorrows by the way

2. He was treated – esteemed stricken, smitten, afflicted
Matt. 26:65-68 Jesus before the high priest – spat upon, beat with fists, slapped
--- the way Jesus was treated is the way we deserve to be treated

3. Jesus took the abuse we deserve, because of our sins
---Jesus allowed them to treat Him like a criminal, so we don’t have to be

Jesus was pierced, crushed, chastised, scourged for us, paying the debt for our sins!
(Is. 53:5-6, 11)
pierced (wounded) for our transgressions: thorns pierced His brow, nail pierced His hands and feet, spear pierced His side
[color=990000][b]crushed (bruised) for our iniquities: beaten and bruised body throughout the ordeal
chastised for our well-being (peace): we can now have peace with God through Christ, reconciled
5 scourging (stripes) we are healed: scourging hurt Him but healed us – chastisement resulting in peace
6 took our sins upon Himself and paid for them
11 justified us, bore our iniquities[/color][/b]

1 Pet. 1:18-19 redeemed (bought) with the precious blood of Jesus
1 Pet. 1:2 sprinkled with Jesus’ blood when obey (redeemed) – Passover, blood, sprinkle
1 Cor. 6:19-20 temple of Holy Spirit, not our own, been bought with a price, glorify God in our bodies –

our obligation, what we owe in return – i.e., 1 Pet. 2:21-24
1 Pet. 2:21-24 walk in footsteps of Jesus , not revile, not threaten, entrusted Himself to God, bore our sins

Jesus bore our sins on the cross, paid the debt we own, now we are to walk in His footsteps---obey, serve Him faithfully

Jesus didn’t stop them, although He had the power to do so!
Is. 53:7 Jesus silent, like a lamb led to slaughter
Matt. 26:53 (Peter, sword) Christ could have called 12 legions of angels to fight, stop the suffering and crucifixion

(legion at this time was 6,826 men x12 = 81,912)

Matt. 26:62-63; Jn. 19:1-8 Jesus before high priest and Pilate, kept silent some times
Jesus didn’t try to save Himself, rather He gave in to their desire to kill Him

Jesus died in our place!
Is. 53:8-10 Jesus died for us , in our place, to whom the stroke was due
He didn’t sin in undergoing our punishment, so we could be blessed through Him

Jesus did for us what we couldn’t do for ourselves

Jesus bore our sins and interceded for us!
Is. 53:12 Jesus bore our sins, interceded – intervened between us and God to reconcile us together

to intercede on our behalf for our sins, Jesus had to shed His blood – spotless, human, blood sacrifice

Heb. 9:11-12, 14 Christ offered Himself, and entered into the heavenly tabernacle to make atonement for our sins – Passover Lamb

What did Jesus do for us as our Passover Lamb?
Is. 53:4-12 – 4. Surely he hath borne our griefs, and carried our sorrows: yet we did esteem him stricken, smitten of God, and afflicted. 5. But he was wounded for our transgressions, he was bruised for our iniquities: the chastisement of our peace was upon him; and with his stripes we are healed. 6. All we like sheep have gone astray; we have turned every one to his own way; and the Lord hath laid on him the iniquity of us all.
7. He was oppressed, and he was afflicted, yet he opened not his mouth: he is brought as a lamb to the slaughter, and as a sheep before her shearers is dumb, so he openeth not his mouth. 8. He was taken from prison and from judgment: and who shall declare his generation? for he was cut off out of the land of the living: for the transgression of my people was he stricken. 9. And he made his grave with the wicked, and with the rich in his death; because he had done no violence, neither was any deceit in his mouth.
10. Yet it pleased the Lord to bruise him; he hath put him to grief: when thou shalt make his soul an offering for sin, he shall see his seed, he shall prolong his days, and the pleasure of the Lord shall prosper in his hand. 11. He shall see of the travail of his soul, and shall be satisfied: by his knowledge shall my righteous servant justify many; for he shall bear their iniquities. 12. Therefore will I divide him a portion with the great, and he shall divide the spoil with the strong; because he hath poured out his soul unto death: and he was numbered with the transgressors; and he bare the sin of many, and made intercession for the transgressors.

Heb. 13:12-14 Jesus went outside the gate to be sacrificed as our Passover Lamb!


God bless,

Walter


Jesus-is-GOD wrote:
For some reason you've triggered a funny memory.
Years ago, I was on one forum where the moderators would take on another account as a member and have lots of "fun" with the other members. :-)

L
Logic

roaringlamb wrote:
Or according to roaringlam"He who knew no sin (did not have a will in the state of rebelion/disobediance, or have a rebelious will as to choose to do any sin) became sin (the state of rebelion/disobediance, or a rebelion of the will as to be the act of any sin) for us
Umm where did I say any of that?
By saying that both words "sin" are the same.

And also, are you saying that Christ had a rebellious will? thus implying that He could have sinned? So God can sin?
When did I say that?
Re-read what I said.[color=990000]He who knew no sin[/color] ([b]did not have a will in the state of rebelion/disobediance[/b] as to choose to do any sin) [color=990000]became sin[/color] (A sin offering) [color=990000]for us[/color] (so that God may deem us as righteous).

And again, you have to deal with the fact that sin in that passage is a noun, it is a thing that Christ was made.
if sin is a noun, then it is a description of the verb.
You're saying that Jesus became the literal
description of the verb sin.
IOW, Jesus became an actual transgression of the law, an actual sin of its self. How is this posible; How did Jesus become transgression?
How did Jesus become a violation of a law or a command?

Explain how a human person (Jesus) become the noun of sin?
(Don't say it is a mystery, becauas mysteries are not imposibilities or nonsenses)

R
rbanks

Matthew Poole's Commentary on the Holy Bible
2 Corinthians 5:21
Ver. 21. For he hath made him to be sin for us, who knew no sin: Christ knew no sin, as he was guilty of no sin; Which of you (saith he, Joh 8:46) convinceth me of sin? 1Pe 2:22, He did no sin, neither was guile found in his mouth: but God made him to be sin for us. He was numbered with the transgressors, Isa 53:12. Our sins were reckoned to him; so as though personally he was no sinner, yet by imputation he was, and God dealt with him as such; for he was made a sacrifice for our sins, a sin offering; so answering the type in the law, Le 4:3,25; 5:6; 7:2.
That we might be made the righteousness of God in him; that so his righteousness might be imputed to us, and we might be made righteous with such a righteousness as those souls must have whom God will accept. As Christ was not made sin by any sin inherent in him, so neither are we made righteous by any righteousness inherent in us, but by the righteousness of Christ imputed to us; as he was a sinner by the sins of his people reckoned and imputed unto him.

Pulpit Commentary
2 Corinthians 5:21
He hath made him to be sin for us; rather, he made; he speaks with definite reference to the cross. The expression is closely analogous to that in Ga 3:13, where it is said that Christ has been "made a curse for us." He was, as St. Augustine says, "delictorum susceptor, non commissor." He knew no sin; nay, he was the very righteousness, holiness itself, [Jer 23:6] and yet, for our benefit, God made him to be "sin" for us, in that he "sent him in the likeness of sinful flesh and for sin". [Ro 8:3] Many have understood the word "sin" in the sense of sin offering; [Le 5:9-10] but that is a precarious application of the word, which is not justified by any other passage in the New Testament. We cannot, as Dean Plumptre says, get beyond the simple statement, which St. Paul is content to leave in its unexplicable mystery, "Christ identified with man's sin; man identified with Christ's righteousness." And thus, in Christ, God becomes Jehovah-Tsidkenu, "the Lord our Righteousness". [Jer 23:6] That we might be made the righteousness of God in him; rather, that we might become. The best comment on the pregnant significance of this verse is Ro 1:16-17, which is developed and explained in so large a section of that great Epistle (see 3:22-25; 4:5-8; 5:19, etc.). In him In his blood is a means of propitiation by which the righteousness of God becomes the righteousness of man, [1Co 1:30] so that man is justified. The truth which St. Paul thus develops and expresses is stated by St. Peter and St. John in a simpler and less theological form [1Pe 2:22-24; 1Jo 3:5]

R
roaringlamb

By saying that both words "sin" are the same.

Taylor said that, but he's right. So answer the question he posed to you.

if sin is a noun, then it is a description of the verb.

That's what the text says not me,the form used is a noun and it says nothing about sin offering.

C
Christinyou

What was in the cup that Jesus ask the Father to take away from Him? Sin of the whole world, past, present and future.

Why would He ask the Father to take away the cup?
He was perfect and sinless and knew He would have to drink that cup and be filled in His sinless body with the sin of the world. What a terrible picture for Jesus to see. Yet, for the Father's sake and the Father's will He drank. My sin was in Christ, that is how I died to sin. "I am crucified with Christ, yet I live. It is no longer I who live, but Christ who lives in me, and the life I now live I live by the faith of the Son of God. Who love me and gave Himself for me."

Our Glory is in Him and He is in us. Jesus had no sin but my sin in Himself by the cup the Father had given Him to drink, which He sweat great drops of Blood over, because of what was in the cup, My sin put every nail in Christ, ever lash stroke that ripped His flesh was because of me, every thorn crushed into His head and every drop of blood shed, that fell to the bottom of the cross, was pooled there because of me, even unto the death of the Cross. How great is the Cross and how great is the sacrifice that he made just to get a sinner like me. I know it, I believe it, I see it in the Word, the Holy Spirit makes it clear and truth to me, but with tears running down my face I still cannot understand the depth, width and height of that much love just to get me and you.

1 Peter 2:21-25 For even hereunto were ye called: because Christ also suffered for us, leaving us an example, that ye should follow his steps: Who did no sin, neither was guile found in his mouth: Who, when he was reviled, reviled not again; when he suffered, he threatened not; but committed himself to him that judgeth righteously: Who his own self bare our sins in his own body on the tree, that we, being dead to sins, should live unto righteousness: by whose stripes ye were healed. For ye were as sheep going astray; but are now returned unto the Shepherd and Bishop of your souls.

How can we fight over the Law and Grace. Because we still don't see that Christ did on the Cross.
We cannot love Him, even though that is the desire of our own hearts, It must take God and His whole Plan before the foundation of the whole world that we would be in Christ and He in us, that we might attain this Love of the Father and the Son and the Holy Spirit in us that the deepest desire of our own heart is to Love Him as He loved Us.

He has given it to us, but we still want to do it ourselves, when it is He that has finished the work and we must give ourselves to that finished work that we might be just like Jesus and be able to love the Father like He does and love each other even as He loves us before the world began, before the Cross, on the Cross, After the Cross and Now as He has given us of His own Spirit that we might be the son's of God, even as He is in this world so are we.

Ephesians 1:3-5 Blessed be the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who hath blessed us with all spiritual blessings in heavenly places in Christ: According as he hath chosen us in him before the foundation of the world, that we should be holy and without blame before him in love: Having predestinated us unto the adoption of children by Jesus Christ to himself, according to the good pleasure of his will,

Ephesians 2:5-10 Even when we were dead in sins, hath quickened us together with Christ, (by grace ye are saved;) And hath raised us up together, and made us sit together in heavenly places in Christ Jesus: That in the ages to come he might shew the exceeding riches of his grace in his kindness toward us through Christ Jesus. For by grace are ye saved through faith; and that not of yourselves: it is the gift of God: Not of works, lest any man should boast. For we are his workmanship, created in Christ Jesus unto good works, which God hath before ordained that we should walk in them.

Galatians 2:16-21 Knowing that a man is not justified by the works of the law, but by the faith of Jesus Christ, even we have believed in Jesus Christ, that we might be justified by the faith of Christ, and not by the works of the law: for by the works of the law shall no flesh be justified. But if, while we seek to be justified by Christ, we ourselves also are found sinners, is therefore Christ the minister of sin? God forbid. For if I build again the things which I destroyed, I make myself a transgressor. For I through the law am dead to the law, that I might live unto God. I am crucified with Christ: nevertheless I live; yet not I, but Christ liveth in me: and the life which I now live in the flesh I live by the faith of the Son of God, who loved me, and gave himself for me. I do not frustrate the grace of God: for if righteousness come by the law, then Christ is dead in vain.
Who's faith through Grace? "Not of ourselves".

Colossians 1:25-29 Whereof I am made a minister, according to the dispensation of God which is given to me for you, to fulfil the word of God; Even the mystery which hath been hid from ages and from generations, but now is made manifest to his saints: To whom God would make known what is the riches of the glory of this mystery among the Gentiles; which is Christ in you, the hope of glory: Whom we preach, warning every man, and teaching every man in all wisdom; that we may present every man perfect in Christ Jesus: Whereunto I also labour, striving according to his working, which worketh in me mightily.

Who is our Glory and our all in all?

Praise God In Christ Jesus: Phillip

G
ginnyrose

Sometimes I think as adults we make things way to complicated.

AMEN! One time I told our deacon "I think you preachers sure have a knack for complicating the simplest things!" He agreed. Now this was a long time ago, perhaps 20 years and I have not seen anything since that changed my mind...

MaryJane, your son was very insightful! His observation is brilliant. Hey! I would guess the best here on SI could not have summed it up as well as he did....ah, yes, "out of the mouth of babes...."

ginnyrose

L
Logic

roaringlamb wrote:
By saying that both words "sin" are the same.
Taylor said that, but he's right. So answer the question he posed to you.
I answer all questions to me, But If I miss them, I will ask to give me the question again so I don't need to search out for the lost question.

[b]please answer mine.[/b]
If sin is a noun, then it is a description of the verb.
You're saying that Jesus became the literal description of the verb sin.
IOW, Jesus became an actual transgression of the law, an actual sin of its self. How is this posible; How did Jesus become transgression[/b]?[/b]
How did Jesus become a violation of a law or a command[b]?[/b]

Explain how a human person (Jesus) become the noun of sin[b]?[/b]
(Don't say it is a mystery, becauas mysteries are not imposibilities or nonsenses)

if sin is a noun, then it is a description of the verb.
That's what the text says not me, the form used is a noun and it says nothing about sin offering.
Well, Just like translaters using italics, one should put there own which says "[i]offering[/i]" after the 2nd word sin.

Some translations already do.
CLV (concordant literal view), CJB (Complete Jewish Bible)
And it still remains a noun.

S
sermonindex

If sin is a noun, then it is a description of the verb.
But it doesn't say that He became the verb, but it only says that He took on the noun.

Here is another way to look at this sin, as I was meditating on this for a split second, the holy Spirit brought to my attention this verse of scripture.

Galations 3:13 Christ hath redeemed us from the curse of the law, being made a curse for us: for it is written, Cursed is every one that hangeth on a tree:
The equivalent of the discussion concerning Christ "becoming sin for us", here is speaking that "He being made a curse for us". The issue is not, "did Christ become a sinner"?, the issue is that He who knew no sin, became sin for us, THUS HE WAS SEPARATED FROM GOD. "[Y]our iniquities has separated you from [y]our God". Isaiah 59:2. MY iniquities. The wooden cross represented flesh, you and I. He became sin, that is to say that He joined Himself with humanity IN DEATH. He was nailed to humanity. And thus He was separated from God. And was cursed. Ah, but it didn't end there. The resurrection brought about a whole new creature, which included you and I in that new creation, yesterday today and forever.

S
sermonindex

To Logic:

Only God, who spoke everything into existence out of nothing could handle the sin problem of mankind!

Only God could do such a [color=990000][b]supernatural[/color][/b] thing. Only God could take away the sin problem once and for all. God that sent Alpha & Omega, The Angel of the Lord, The Lion of the Tribe of Judah, part of the Trinity, God the Son, Jesus Christ, to take away the sin of man-by taking all of it onto Himself, from the beginning of time to the end of time.

The first Adam brought sin into the world, and the last Adam (Jesus Christ) took it away (for all those that repent of their sins and believe the Gospel).

[b]This was God's plan before the foundation of the world.[/b]

What did Jesus do for us as our Passover Lamb?
Is. 53:4-12 – [color=990000][b]4. Surely he hath borne our griefs, and carried our sorrows: yet we did esteem him stricken, smitten of God, and afflicted. 5. But he was wounded for our transgressions, he was bruised for our iniquities: the chastisement of our peace was upon him; and with his stripes we are healed. 6. All we like sheep have gone astray; we have turned every one to his own way; and the Lord hath laid on him the iniquity of us all.
7. He was oppressed, and he was afflicted, yet he opened not his mouth: he is brought as a lamb to the slaughter, and as a sheep before her shearers is dumb, so he openeth not his mouth. 8. He was taken from prison and from judgment: and who shall declare his generation? for he was cut off out of the land of the living: for the transgression of my people was he stricken. 9. And he made his grave with the wicked, and with the rich in his death; because he had done no violence, neither was any deceit in his mouth.
10. Yet it pleased the Lord to bruise (CRUSH) him; he hath put him to grief: when thou shalt make his soul an offering for sin, he shall see his seed, he shall prolong his days, and the pleasure of the Lord shall prosper in his hand. 11. He shall see of the travail of his soul, and shall be satisfied: by his knowledge shall my righteous servant justify many; for he shall bear their iniquities. 12. Therefore will I divide him a portion with the great, and he shall divide the spoil with the strong; because he hath poured out his soul unto death: and he was numbered with the transgressors; and he bare the sin of many, and made intercession for the transgressors.[/color][/b]

Heb. 13:12-14 Jesus went outside the gate to be sacrificed as our Passover Lamb!

Sincerely,

Walter


Logic wrote:
roaringlamb wrote:
By saying that both words "sin" are the same.
Taylor said that, but he's right. So answer the question he posed to you.
I answer all questions to me, But If I miss them, I will ask to give me the question again so I don't need to search out for the lost question.

[b]please answer mine.[/b]
If sin is a noun, then it is a description of the verb.
You're saying that Jesus became the literal description of the verb sin.
IOW, Jesus became an actual transgression of the law, an actual sin of its self. How is this posible; How did Jesus become transgression[/b]?[/b]
How did Jesus become a violation of a law or a command[b]?[/b]

Explain how a human person (Jesus) become the noun of sin[b]?[/b]
(Don't say it is a mystery, becauas mysteries are not imposibilities or nonsenses)

if sin is a noun, then it is a description of the verb.
That's what the text says not me, the form used is a noun and it says nothing about sin offering.
Well, Just like translaters using italics, one should put there own which says "[i]offering[/i]" after the 2nd word sin.

Some translations already do.
CLV (concordant literal view), CJB (Complete Jewish Bible)
And it still remains a noun.

R
roaringlamb

If sin is a noun

As I have been thinking about this, it is interesting that even in the OT sin IS presented as a thing at least in one part-
"sin is crouching at the door. Its desire is for you" Genesis 4:7 ESV

So it's not such a foreign concept. I am sure there are more and I know that the way it is used there is more a metaphor than anything, but it gets us away from the thinking that sin is just a verb.

Actually, this word is used n the OT for sin and is a noun-
H2403
חטּאת / חטּאה
chaṭṭâ'âh / chaṭṭâ'th
Part of Speech: noun feminine

Of course there are instances where a verb is used.

So sin can be a thing in Scripture. I know that doesn't fit your view, but it is the truth. So either Scripture is wrong or you are?

L
Logic

roaringlamb wrote:
If sin is a noun
As I have been thinking about this, it is interesting that even in the OT sin IS presented as a thing at least in one part-
"sin is crouching at the door. Its desire is for you" Genesis 4:7 ESV

So it's not such a foreign concept. I am sure there are more and I know that the way it is used there is more a metaphor than anything, but it gets us away from the thinking that sin is just a verb.

Actually, this word is used n the OT for sin and is a noun-
H2403
חטּאת / חטּאה
chaṭṭâ'âh / chaṭṭâ'th
Part of Speech: noun feminine

Of course there are instances where a verb is used.

So sin can be a thing in Scripture. I know that doesn't fit your view, but it is the truth. So either Scripture is wrong or you are?

I'm not questioning IF sin is a noune, I meant [b]when[/b] sin is a noun, then it is a description of the verb.

[b]please answer my questions.[/b]
If sin is a noun, then it is a description of the verb.
You're saying that Jesus became the literal description of the verb sin.
IOW, Jesus became an actual transgression of the law, an actual sin of its self. How is this posible; How did Jesus become transgression[/b]?[/b]
How did Jesus become a violation of a law or a command[b]?[/b]

Explain how a human person (Jesus) become the noun of sin[b]?[/b]
(Don't say it is a mystery, becauas mysteries are not imposibilities or nonsenses)

L
Logic

DeepThinker wrote:
If sin is a noun, then it is a description of the verb.
But it doesn't say that He became the verb, but it only says that He took on the noun.
They're not arguing that Jesus "took on" sin, but He BECAME sin.
Here is another way to look at this sin, as I was meditating on this for a split second, the holy Spirit brought to my attention this verse of scripture.
[b]Galatians 3:13[/b] [color=990000]Christ hath redeemed us from the curse of the law, being made a curse for us: for it is written, Cursed is every one that hangeth on a tree:[/color]
This was a stumbling block for the Jews; their Messiah being cursed.
However, this is not the same as becoming actual sin; Jesus was not an actual curse, but was cursed.
Jesus did not become actual sin, which is nonsense.
It is literally impossible that anyone, even Jesus to become transgression.
You're blemishing the spotless Lamb!

the issue is that He who knew no sin, became sin for us, THUS HE WAS SEPARATED FROM GOD. "[Y]our iniquities has separated you from [y]our God". Isaiah 59:2.
Jesus was not relationally separated from God, but only an abandonment; as God stopped delivering HIM from the hands of wicked men, like when He escaped from the midst of a crowd.
[b]Psalm 22:1[/b] [color=990000]My God, my God, why have you forsaken me? [b]why are you so far from helping me[/b], and from the words of my groaning?[/color]

The wooden cross represented flesh, you and I.
That is not doctrine.

He became sin, that is to say that He joined Himself with humanity IN DEATH.
He becoming sin [b]is not to say[/b] that He joined Himself with humanity IN DEATH.
That is saying the spotless lamb became blemished.

He was nailed to humanity.
That is not doctrine

The resurrection brought about a whole new creature,
IF Jesus became sin, then He would resurrect; Sin can not resurrect.

R
roaringlamb

please answer my questions

I have, you just don't like the answers and you REFUSE to see that God's work in making Christ sin was God's doing and is a mystery.

It is a mystery in the same way that when two or three are gathered together Christ is there.

It is a mystery in the same way that the sheep and goats of the OT were made sin for the one who was offering them.

It is a mystery in the same way that we are seated with Christ in the Heavenlies while still being on the Earth.

It is a mystery in the same way that Christ is present in the bread and wine of communion.

Just because you want everything black and white doesn't mean that God has to stoop to your "logic" so you can decide if He is right.

S
sermonindex

Logic, is it doctrine that man can make it into heaven without Christ? Because this is what you have said. Christ said that no one makes it to the Father except through Him:

John 14

Jesus the Way to the Father
5Thomas said to him, "Lord, we don't know where you are going, so how can we know the way?"
6Jesus answered, "I am the way and the truth and the life. No one comes to the Father except through me.

You said that if someone observes the law perfectly they can get to heaven and to the Father. This is not what Christ said and it is not truth. So in some ways you have a Christless theology when you say those who have observed the law perfectly from birth to death do not need Christ to see the Father in heaven. So your 'not doctrine' stuff is without any merit or credibility as a critique of other's.

Also you have said previously that Psalms, Proverbs, and Song of Songs 'as a general rule' should not be used as a source for correct doctrine. Yet I see you quoting from these books quite often when it benefits your argument. You're a walking contradiction yet you obsess over pointing out the seeming contradiction of others via your own skewed interpretation of what they said and meant.

"IF Jesus became sin, then He would resurrect; Sin can not resurrect." Logic

When you take an argument this far, the doctrine of others should be the least of your worries. When one has ventured this far in argument, they have no clue as to how it reflects on them.

S
sermonindex


Jesus-is-GOD wrote:
For some reason you've triggered a funny memory.
Years ago, I was on one forum where the moderators would take on another account as a member and have lots of "fun" with the other members. :-)

I'm here to put the "fun" back in fundamentalist dogma.

S
sermonindex


roaringlamb wrote:


It is a mystery in the same way that when two or three are gathered together Christ is there.

It is a mystery in the same way that the sheep and goats of the OT were made sin for the one who was offering them.

It is a mystery in the same way that we are seated with Christ in the Heavenlies while still being on the Earth.

It is a mystery in the same way that Chris is present in the bread and wine of communion.

The mystery of godliness is that we are saved by upholding correct dogma, yet the ambiguity of the Bible and the diversity of Christian experience makes a consensus on correct dogma impossible, as this thread demonstrates.

R
roaringlamb

I meant when sin is a noun, then it is a description of the verb.

Is this even possible in grammar?

Doesn't an adverb describe a verb?

I'm not an English major so I could be wrong but your idea doesn't make sense grammatically.

L
Logic

roaringlamb wrote:
please answer my questions
I have, you just don't like the answers and you REFUSE to see that God's work in making Christ sin was God's doing and is a mystery.
I refuse nonsense, which you're claiming.
It is not a mystery. mysteries can be explained, that which you're claiming can not be.

It is a mystery in the same way that when two or three are gathered together Christ is there.
This verse is concerning a brother who trespasses against you. If he will not hear you, then take with you one or two more, that in the mouth of two or three witnesses every word may be established. And if he shall neglect to hear them, tell it unto the church: but if he neglects to hear the church, let him be unto you as a heathen man and a tax collector.

For where two or three are gathered together in my name, there am I in the midst of them.
God is basically saying that He will be agreeing to the judgment of the church.

No unexplainable mysteries in this.

It is a mystery in the same way that the sheep and goats of the OT were made sin for the one who was offering them.
They were not made sin, but they were sin offerings.

It is a mystery in the same way that we are seated with Christ in the Heavenlies while still being on the Earth.
It is not seated [b]with[/b] Christ in the Heavenlies.
But "seated us together in the heavenlies [b]in[/b] Christ Jesus.

If you want to use a translation which has it as "with Christ", then you got to prove that is the correct translation.
If you will not do that, then you got to prove that it is possible for us to already be seated with HIM while we are still here on Earth. Reality proves that we are not.

It is a mystery in the same way that Christ is present in the bread and wine of communion.
Are you Catholic?

Jesus said, "Do this in remembrance of ME."
This was a bold statement when they were supposed to do it in remembrance of the first Passover with Moses.

Jesus is not "present [b]in[/b] the bread and wine", He is present [b]in[/b] our company while we take the bread and wine.

Still, no unexplainable mysteries.

Just because you want everything black and white doesn't mean that God has to stoop to your "logic" so you can decide if He is right.
It's not "my logic". Logic is universal, it is all mankind’s.
God is logical, you are not.

I am not the one deciding if He is right, but [b]you’re the one arguing [u]against reality[/u][/b].

L
Logic

roaringlamb wrote:
I meant when sin is a noun, then it is a description of the verb.
Is this even possible in grammar?

Doesn't an adverb describe a verb?

I'm not an English major so I could be wrong but your idea doesn't make sense grammatically.

An an adverb [b]modifies[/b] the verb.
The midwives waited(verb) patiently(adverb) through a long labour.

Verb "sin" is "to murder".
The noun "sin" would be "the murder" which was done.

Your saying that Jesus became some ambiguous sin on the cross.

reality would have it that He was actualy a sin offering instead of some fantastic thing which you claim?

L
Logic

ccrider wrote:
Logic, is it doctrine that man can make it into heaven without Christ? Because this is what you have said. Christ said that no one makes it to the Father except through Him:
I never said that make it into heaven without Christ.

You said that if someone observes the law perfectly they can get to heaven and to the Father. This is not what Christ said and it is not truth.
someone observes the law perfectly they can get to heaven and to the Father [b]with Christ as LORD[/b], however, they would not need Christ as savior.
This would be most glorifying to God; never sinning against HIM as to need a savior.

So in some ways you have a Christless theology when you say those who have observed the law perfectly from birth to death do not need Christ to see the Father in heaven.
Nope!

So your 'not doctrine' stuff is without any merit or credibility as a critique of other's.
Yes it is.

Also you have said previously that Psalms, Proverbs, and Song of Songs 'as a general rule' should not be used as a source for correct doctrine.
Okay, I regret this one after further study.

"IF Jesus became sin, then He would resurrect; Sin can not resurrect." Logic

When you take an argument this far, the doctrine of others should be the least of your worries. When one has ventured this far in argument, they have no clue as to how it reflects on them.

I think I meant:
IF Jesus became sin, then He would [b]not[/b] resurrect; Sin can not resurrect.

They are the ones venturing so far in argument. They claim Jesus became literal ambiguous sin.
This is rediculous.
A person/animal can not be sin.

R
roaringlamb

I refuse nonsense, which you're claiming.

Nonsense for saying that imputation is right?

Nonsense for saying that the word "sin" in 2 Corinthians 5:21 is a noun?

Nonsense for saying that apart from imputation there is no Gospel?

They were not made sin, but they were sin offerings.

There was a transfer of guilt from the sinner to the offering. An imputation of the sinner's guilt to the guiltless animal, that is why the hand was laid on the head of the animal.

Imputation is also seen in the scape goat, as the sins of Israel were "imputed" to it and then it was allowed to go being a symbol of God's removing their sins.

It's not too hard to see.

It is not seated with Christ in the Heavenlies. But "seated us together in the heavenlies in Christ Jesus.

I don't really see the difference, but for your entertainment and so you know I am using a "good" translation(sorry i don't have the one that says "sin offering" where is doesn't appear)-

sugkathizō
Thayer Definition:
1) to cause to sit down together, place together
2) to sit down together
Part of Speech: verb

and also
ἐν
en
Thayer Definition:
1) in, by, with etc.
Part of Speech: preposition

It also says that we are "raised with Him", while we are still here on Earth, but I'm sure you'll find some way to get around that too :-)

Are you Catholic?

Yep in the true sense of the word Catholic I am, I believe in one Holy Catholic and apostolic Church.

Jesus is not "present in the bread and wine", He is present in our company while we take the bread and wine.

As far as the communion goes, perhaps you should do some research before you jump to conclusions because Jesus also said, "this IS my body", "this IS my blood"

AND Paul makes this point about how the Corinthians were taking communion in an unworthy manner-
1 Corinthians 11:27 Whoever, therefore, eats the bread or drinks the cup of the Lord in an unworthy manner will be guilty concerning the body and blood of the Lord.
1 Corinthians 11:28 Let a person examine himself, then, and so eat of the bread and drink of the cup.
1 Corinthians 11:29 [b]For anyone who eats and drinks without discerning the body eats and drinks judgment on himself.[/b]

And still, you have not answered taylor about why one use of the word "sin" is meant "sin offering", while the next one(same word) is not.

I know why though, it doesn't fit with your view.

S
sermonindex

Jesus was not a sinner, Jesus was not guilty, Jesus was not sinful. Jesus was holy, sinless, and innocent.

Jesus was not a sinner because a sinner by definition is someone who has chosen to sin.

Jesus was not guilty because you can only be guilty of what you have done.

Jesus was not sinful because only someone who has sinned, or has a disobedient heart, can be called sinful.

When Jesus hung on the cross, He was a holy sinless innocent lamb of God. He was without any spot and without any blemish. That is the only reason He could die for our sin and that is the reason His sacrifice was acceptable to God.

R
roaringlamb

Jesus was not a sinner, Jesus was not guilty, Jesus was not sinful

Yet in that moment in which He cried out to God asking why He had forsaken Him, He was cut off from the Father.

Why? there are many reasons I'm sure, but the clearest one is 2 Corinthians 5:21!

But since you guys can't grasp that, I don't know what else to say.

Funny that you guys(you and logic) have no problem rejecting nearly two thousand years of teaching on something that should seem so clear.

There is no Gospel apart from imputation.

If Christ ONLY died to make a way for us to get to God, then we still to be righteous to stand before Him. Which means we would need to keep the Moral Law PERFECTLY ALL THE TIME to do so.

If Christ took the place of the sinner(not because he Himself sinned), and then gave us His righteousness, not only is the penalty of sin done away with, but because we have a righteousness that CAN stand before God, we have freedom to come boldly to His throne.

That is the point Paul is making in Romans 5:1-2
"Therefore, since we have been justified by faith, we have peace with God through our Lord Jesus Christ. Through him we have also obtained access by faith into this grace in which we stand, and we rejoice in hope of the glory of God."

Consider the verses that come before this, as it wasn't divided when Paul wrote it-
"But the words [b]"it was counted to him"[/b] were not written for his sake alone, but for ours also. [b]It will be counted[/b] to us who believe in him who raised from the dead Jesus our Lord, who was delivered up for our trespasses and raised for our justification. Romans 4:23-25

That phrase in the KJV is "imputed", and yes "logizomai" means "reckoned" or "put to ones account".

L
Logic

roaringlamb wrote:
I refuse nonsense, which you're claiming.
Nonsense for saying that imputation is right?

Nonsense for saying that the word "sin" in 2 Corinthians 5:21 is a noun?

Nonsense for saying that apart from imputation there is no Gospel?

No, Nonsense for saying that Jesus became an ambiguous sin on the cross.
There was a transfer of guilt from the sinner to the offering. An imputation of the sinner's guilt to the guiltless animal, that is why the hand was laid on the head of the animal.
There was no "transfer of guilt" to Jesus.
If there was, then Jesus was guilty and deserved to die.
Furthermore, He wouldn't have rose from the grave having guilt.

Imputation is also seen in the scape goat, as the sins of Israel were "imputed" to it and then it was allowed to go being a symbol of God's removing their sins.
Imputation is not a "transfer".
Imputation is a "deeming"
We are deemed righteous because Jesus was our sin offering.
Our faith is "deemed" as righteousness just as Abraham's.

It's not too hard to see.
The scape goat took the penalty of sin, it did not have sin imputed to it.

Jesus is not "present in the bread and wine", He is present in our company while we take the bread and wine.
As far as the communion goes, perhaps you should do some research before you jump to conclusions because Jesus also said, "this IS my body", "this IS my blood"
It is not His literal body & blood.
It is symbolic.
Jesus is not "present [b]in[/b] the bread and wine"

1 Corinthians 11:29 For anyone who eats and drinks without discerning the body eats and drinks judgment on himself.
Not Jesus' literal body, but the congregation as the body.

And still, you have not answered taylor about why one use of the word "sin" is meant "sin offering", while the next one(same word) is not.
I did answer that question already.
Because it doesn't make sense.
2Co 5:21 For He has made Him who knew no sin offering, to be a sin offering for us...
This makes no sense.

For He has made Him who knew no literal sin , to be a literal sin for us...
This makes no sense either.

I know why though, it doesn't fit with your view.
Huh?

S
sermonindex

I feel like I'm in a colloseum, watching two titans do battle: Achilles vs. Hector; the Merrimac vs. the Monitor; Thor vs. the Midgard Serpent; Logic vs. roaringlamb. The fate of the nations hangs in the balance. The eternal destiny of billions hangs on the definition of "logizomai", or the nounage or verbage of "sin," or whether guilt was "imputed" or "transferred" to Jesus, or whether this "imputation" is a "transferring" or a "deeming," or whether this imputation was an accreditation or a transferal. This is Theological Armageddon. Weak men can only look on in awe and cower under the Thunders of Absolute Intellect.

G
ginnyrose

Weak men can only look on in awe and cower under the Thunders of Absolute Intellect.

I must be weak then....or maybe not, but I look at this discussion in disgust. (EDIT: Opps! I just noticed - he said 'men' and I am a woman! Oh, {{sigh}}.)

I told my husband about this thread the other night and his first reaction was "who was dumb enough to ask such a question?" Admittedly he is not into 'deep theology'- splitting theological hairs is not his thing. After we discussed this issue, he finally said this was a stupid conversation and said "well, this is not the way it was so it is useless to discuss it!" I think he was very wise!

LoinGirder, I love your satire! :-)

ginnyrose

S
sermonindex


To Logic:

Did Jesus die for our sin or with our sin?. Was our sin upon Him? Was it within Him? For 3 hours before Christ gave up the Ghost and died FOR US--For 3 hours before that time--between noon and 3:00 P.M. there was darkness over all the earth. God could not even look upon His son because our sin was upon His Son. What was Christ’s response to God? WHY HAVE YOU FORSAKEN ME. Why could God not even look upon His Son? Because he bore the sins of the World UPON/WITHIN HIMSELF.

What does the Bible say?

Mark 15:33-38
33. And when the sixth hour was come, there was darkness over the whole land until the ninth hour.
34. And at the ninth hour Jesus cried with a loud voice, saying, Eloi, Eloi, lama sabachthani? which is, being interpreted, My God, my God, why hast thou forsaken me?
35. And some of them that stood by, when they heard it, said, Behold, he calleth Elias.
36. And one ran and filled a spunge full of vinegar, and put it on a reed, and gave him to drink, saying, Let alone; let us see whether Elias will come to take him down.
37. And Jesus cried with a loud voice, and gave up the ghost.
38. And the veil of the temple was rent in twain from the top to the bottom.


Not to worry. Was it on him? Was it in Him? Did He die for me, did He die for you? That is the real question. How we understand it is not. We will all find out the truth when are absent from the body, and present with the Lord, at the end of our days.

God bless,

Walter


No, Nonsense for saying that Jesus became an ambiguous sin on the cross.
Quote:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

There was a transfer of guilt from the sinner to the offering. An imputation of the sinner's guilt to the guiltless animal, that is why the hand was laid on the head of the animal.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
There was no "transfer of guilt" to Jesus.
If there was, then Jesus was guilty and deserved to die.
Furthermore, He wouldn't have rose from the grave having guilt.

Quote:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Imputation is also seen in the scape goat, as the sins of Israel were "imputed" to it and then it was allowed to go being a symbol of God's removing their sins.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Imputation is not a "transfer".
Imputation is a "deeming"
We are deemed righteous because Jesus was our sin offering.
Our faith is "deemed" as righteousness just as Abraham's.

Quote:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

It's not too hard to see.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
The scape goat took the penalty of sin, it did not have sin imputed to it.

Quote:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Quote:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Jesus is not "present in the bread and wine", He is present in our company while we take the bread and wine.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
As far as the communion goes, perhaps you should do some research before you jump to conclusions because Jesus also said, "this IS my body", "this IS my blood"
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
It is not His literal body & blood.
It is symbolic.
Jesus is not "present in the bread and wine"

Quote:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

1 Corinthians 11:29 For anyone who eats and drinks without discerning the body eats and drinks judgment on himself.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Not Jesus' literal body, but the congregation as the body.

Quote:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

And still, you have not answered taylor about why one use of the word "sin" is meant "sin offering", while the next one(same word) is not.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
I did answer that question already.
Because it doesn't make sense.
2Co 5:21 For He has made Him who knew no sin offering, to be a sin offering for us...
This makes no sense.

For He has made Him who knew no literal sin , to be a literal sin for us...
This makes no sense either.

Quote:
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------

I know why though, it doesn't fit with your view.
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Huh?


S
sermonindex

One last thought. What does the Bible say about the sacrificial system in the Old Testament. Wasn't it a picture, a "type" of the final sacrifice, Jesus Christ, The Messiah, The Seed of the Woman?

The teaching on the Sacrifices of Leviticus

If you were a Jew, living at the time of the Tabernacle, or afterwards at the time of the Temple, all the way to 70 A.D. you were required to perform two sacrifices. The Sin Sacrifice and the Trespass Sacrifice were mandatory. The Sin Sacrifice was a Sacrifice to God for your Sin nature, the Sin originally caused by Adam. The Trespass Sacrifice was for your own sins, that you and your family committed- knowing and unknowingly. The procedure consisted of the Father (the Family Priest) taking the unblemished animal to the Tabernacle or the Temple. The Priest would meet him at the altar and examine the sacrifice, paying no attention to offerer. Everything was focused on the unblemished sacrifice, to be certain that it was worthy.[color=990000][b] Then, the sinner (family Priest) would lay his hands onto the sacrifice, and lean into the sacrifice, becoming one with the sacrifice, and then symbolically he would pass all of his & his family’s sin nature into the sacrifice, and he would then slit it’s throat.

If it was a Trespass Sacrifice, he would go through the same procedure, lay his hands upon the head of the sacrifice, and become one with it, and lean onto it and symbolically pass all of his and his family's committed sins (known and unknown) into the sacrifice (the substiture).[/color][/b]Then, he would slit the throat of the sacrifice. Like it says in Hebrews 5:2- there is no remission (forgiveness) without the shedding of blood "22 And almost all things are by the law purged with blood; and without shedding of blood is no remission.]

Then, the Priest would put the blood on the altar. Next, the sinner would filet (skin) the animal and:
1.for the Sin Sacrifice he would cut out the fat that surrounded the inner organs, plus cutting out the kidneys and the liver and give them to the Priest, who would place them on the altar. They were salted and then burned it to. The rest of the animal, including the skin, was burned outside the camp.

2.For the Trespass-Guilt Sacrifice he would cut out the fat that surrounded the inner organs, plus cutting out the kidneys and the liver and give them to the Priest, who would place them on the altar. They were salted and then burned to smitherens. The rest of the animal, including the skin, was given to the Priest.

Was our sin upon Him, was it within Him?

Maybe all of us should spend more time in the Old Testament?


Sincerely,

Walter

This discussion is archived and closed to new replies. Start a new discussion to carry the subject on.
Archived
1 of 64 posts

Everything we make is available for free because of a generous community of supporters.

Donate