by BeYeDoers on 2010/8/14 10:15:38
Actually IN CONTEXT, John 6 is precisely about eternal life. It starts that way, and ends that way. In the middle is your "bread of life" verse. The teaching is that just as manna sustained them (Israel) physically, Christ is now the living bread of heaven, giving much more, that is, spiritual sustenance and everlasting life. Just because the Greek word is non specific, that doesn't mean you can make the passage say whatever you want. Non-specific is NOT the same thing as "specifically both". There are 2 Greek words translated "life", and you are correct that the one in John 6:33 is the more non-specific word. However, non-specific means context dictates, and if it can't be derived from context, we have to read it generally, not specifically, as you are doing.
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As we agree context dictates...and from what is read, correct me if i'm wrong, but from "...(v. 26, "Ye seek me because YE SAW...) labor not for meat which perisheth..." onto " v. 58, "Before Abraham was I AM" is not speaking about spiritual as being something seperate from the physical, but Jesus is rather showing how the two stand in relation to Him. The concourse of the passage leads from the here and now of the work-a-day regimen ultimately to Jesus acknowledging that He is Yaweh. In the transition from seeing (is believing) & laboring for bread to I AM, Jesus brings these things together as in Him they are completely relative to one another. He is hardly speaking about eternal life alone, and "I AM the bread of life (not eternal life, but that of what does exist here and now) is the transitional point of this passage. The passage moves from the physical base to things relative to Jesus, I AM.
Jesus is not saying only that this is how you have spiritual life, but this discourse is in relation (to the Pesach through the) feeding of the 5,000, Jn.5, --he provides a physical example of Mt. 6.33,-- as well as the minor point of 'waste-not-want-not.'
The simple fact of the murmuring about Jesus 'hard' words ("eat my flesh and drink my blood") shows the crowds failure to reconcile the physical with the spiritual.
Jesus didn't say "eat my spiritual flesh and drink my spiritual blood" either. Regarding Jesus saying "I give my body for the life of the world" and someone to come along and say, "oh Jesus was talking about the spiritual at that point in the passage" is more eisegetical than me saying He is talking about the physical there, because exegetically, he is literally talking about the physical at that point in the discourse.
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Furthermore, none of the passages you quoted earlier teach that ALL disease is oppression of the devil, only that THOSE were. There are plenty of diseases in scripture that mention nothing of the devil.
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Here is what was posted that you refer to:
"...God anointed Jesus of Nazareth with the Holy Ghost and with power: who went about doing good, and healing all that were oppressed of the devil; for God was with him...."
( Acts 10.38 )
Here we see that physical maladies are oppression of the devil.
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Did God create Adam with physical maladies?
Why do diseases mentioned in the scripture have to state they are of the devil???
While Jesus was on earth, how many people that he touched were maimed, sustained physical maladies, or died as a result?
God is good and creates all things good.
It took man subjecting himself to the serpent to screw everything up, and the curse of the Law is the result.
Besides, if anybody considers that any type of physical malady is from or of God, they need to read Job for starters.
If they still believe that garbage, they best not go against what God has ordained and done. Suffer and stay far away from that wicked minister of satan, the doctor. Why would somebody want to be free from something God in his infinite mercy and grace has provided out of the goodness of His heart?
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Look, I DO believe that God is our healer. I DO believe that it is His will to heal. I DO believe that scripture teaches many things about healing. I am not debating those things. I am debating how you are arriving at your conclusions, which leads to wrong conclusions that will actually tear down faith, not build it up, and breaks down the integrity of scripture, not supports it. You have to be careful with scripture and let it say what it says. You have been very adamant that scripture expressly teaches certain things, when it clearly doesn't. It may not teach the opposite of what you claim, and may in some cases imply some of the things you say...
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Exegesis forms the framework from which the so-called eisegesis comes, with exegetic cross-referencing to establish it as POSSIBLY valid to expound.
Teaching others, hardly any of it falls under the category of eisegesis ...though i am not by any stretch of the imagination adherant to typical Western biblical interpretation.
This is something that was not stated in the former post explaining of the whys in the ways scripture is used, but you are stepping closer than anyone else has even come, so the cards are going to be laid out on the table for everyone to see.
First, any reference given, no matter how short, implies the total context of a whole passage, whether this has been clarified to the reader of posts from here or not. (This is why bread was not mentioned when posting how Jesus claimed to give His body for the life of the world.)
1987, having moved from Nashville, TN to Metarie, LA, having settled into the new apartment, it was prayed for another teacher and fellowship to be part of.
The very next day, a Messianic Jew was waiting at my door when i got home, and he said God told him to come to my door and wait til' the one who lived there showed up. (He waited all of about 3 minutes). He was a former anathematised Rabbi, and now 'sleeps', though in the many hours of many many days spent with him, he trained me into scriptural studies, teaching me letters, numbers, root words, how to grasp prophecy, and so on of the ancient Hebrew Tanakh.
Aside from the fact of pointing out the presence of Jesus in everything, he never failed to emphasis that prophecy is always saying more than we will ever know. Through these 2 things, he led me into the Jewish way of Bible study, and the 4 modes of working through a passage of scripture.
Western thought only leaves room for history and grammar in relation to exegesis, which is the foundation and first mode of interpretation learned. However, with this, ministers contrive metaphors and allegory(sp?), using stories to emphasis their point. This is an abuse, and a greater eisegesis of scripture, straying from a passage's intent, more-so than i would ever even think of doing.
Jews consider all 4 methods exegesis, each mode of interpretation building on the former, (adding to the foundation and never detracting from it) though westernized Gentiles call foul, and consider it eisegesis.
Knowing the Bible is a Jewish book written by Jews, wouldn't it stand to reason that their method of interpretation holds more viability than the limitations of word definition, grammatical syntax (which in and of itself is often misunderstood), history, and commentaries?
Though what you read from here may seem strange at times, if you will just cross reference and meditate on the scriptures relative to what is stated, you will recognize it to not be contrary in any way to what is done throough the 1st of the 4 methods of interpretation.
If you look at the New Testament objectively, you will see that there is alot of eigesis (by western standards) of both prophecy and Law that are not right at all if we are to adhere to western methods of interpretation as the only correct way to do it.
Here's a few examples off the top of the noggin. These all lack the literal context, and are eisegetic compared to what they literally meant in the Old Testament :
- Jesus saying if you can believe, John the Dunker was Elijah.
- Matthew qouting Hos.11:1 saying, "I have called my son out of Egypt." was already fulfilled when used.
- When Mic. 5.1-2 is used, it is in reference to David's descendants (see: Gen. 48.7 and I Sam. 17.12)
- Paul using "i believed, therefore I have spoken" in II Cor. 4.13 is completely out of context ( by western reasoning) with the passage in Psalms it is drawn from.
- I Cor. 9.9 and I Tim 5.18 using the Law of Moshe regarding oxen to say this applies to those ministers.
There's alot more passages that are easily found just reading through the New Testament, especially prophecies.
Those examples mentioned above have been provided simply that others consider that using western mindset to comprehend oriental thought is faulty, and begins slipping up using only the first method of interpretation, that of historical cultural context in grammatical exegesis.
God bless you brother.
You warning was heeded always before you ever stated it, but to see one who looks deeper than what appears on the surface is quite encouraging. (This has been home in cyberspace since March, but you are the first who has looked deeper than just grammatics and stated such. There's prolly others who just click foreward wondering though.). Thanks for the good words. It never hurts to be told again and again.
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...But to claim that it "clearly" teaches what you have said is not even close to the mark. Your hermeneutic is frighteningly eisegetical, not exegetical. Be very careful, my friend.
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OK, maybe what is clear to me may not be to others, yet taken at face value, the passages surrounding the statement contested are talking in physical terms (aka:biological), and the passage in context with Jn. ch. 5 and 7 is surrounded by the physical being directly relative to the spiritual, and though vice versa is true, in either case they are inseperable from one another accounting all the events surrounding the concourse of the discourse.
(How many people do you know that reject the physical being spiritual? Heb. 11.3)
How can there be spiritual sustenance on earth without any physical life?
Jn. 6.26 starts with a contrasting opposition between the physical and spiritual, then Jesus brings them together as completely relative to one another.
Shabbat Shalom,
gregg
edited: grammar