Hi Brothers,
I appreciate your point of view. Allow me to add some more scriptures and express a few more thoughts.
We can agree that the "finished work" (John 19:30) of God in the work of His Son, Jesus Christ, provides everything necessary for man to be restored to function as God intended. But we seem to differ on the extent and efficacy of the redemptive work of Christ. Even though God is omnipotent I think you are saying that He is limiting the extent of His restorative work in Christ to an "elect" few. God who is all powerful could choose to self-limit Himself and the question becomes what does His Word, teach.
I sense that one side is very careful about defining the word "ALL" as referring to all men, because they don't want to feed the group that believes in "unconditional election" (universalism). But, when you factor man's responsibility to the grace of God, through faith, you can easily counter Universal Salvation for All. The proponents of Universalism emphasize the Scriptural statements that "Christ died for all." Jesus "died for all, therefore all died;...He died for all" (II Cor. 5:14,15). He "gave Himself a ransom for all" (I Tim. 2:6), to "bring salvation to all men" (Titus 2:11), resulting in "justification of life to all men" (Rom. 5:18). "By the grace of God Jesus tasted death for everyone" (Heb. 2:9), and is therefore "the propitiation for our sins, and for those of the whole world" (I John 2:2). "Does "all" mean "all? Does "everyone" mean "everyone?"
I propose that the Word teaches that God does not elect ALL men to be saved, just as He does not elect some men to be damned.
Ian Thomas has some good thoughts on this subject in "The Mystery of Godliness"
"Some would have you believe that only those can obey the Gospel and accept Christ as their Saviour, to whom God has given the ability to obey as a purely arbitrary, mechanical act on His part, leaving no option in the matter to any individual either way! ...such an idea can only serve to bring the righteousness and judgment of God into contempt and disrepute. It is your inherent right to choose which is at the very heart of the mystery, both of the mystery of godliness and of the mystery of iniquity."
"Never allow anyone to deceive you into believing that God has placed an arbitrary limitation upon the efficacy of the blood of Christ, or that there are those who cannot repent, even if they would, simply because God has deliberately placed them outside the scope of His redemptive purpose! This blasphemes the grace, the love and the integrity of God, and makes Him morally responsible for the unbelief of the unbeliever, for the impenitence of the impenitent, and saddles Him squarely with the guilt of the guilty  as an aider and abettor of their sin! Such is not the teaching of the Bible, for the Lord Jesus Christ made it abundantly clear that the reluctance is on man's part, not on God's! (Luke 13:34; John 3:19)"
Can we really dilute the love and grace of God and make Him responsible for the damnation of divinely selected men? No more than we can dilute the Word of God and say that all men are automatically saved. "God is not one to show partiality" (Acts 10:34). "God is not willing that any should perish, but that all should come to repentance" (II Peter 3:9). "God desires all men to be saved, and to come to the knowledge of the truth" (I Tim. 2:4)
I guess it all comes down to what "ALL" means. To some it refers only to the "Elect" and to others, it refers to ALL men.
Did God mean to say the "Elect" in John 3:16 or "the world"?
"God so loved THE WORLD that He gave His only begotten Son" (John 3:16).
Why doesn't the Holy Spirit inspire the writers of the NT to use the word "elect" more consistently?
"The grace of God appeared, bringing salvation to ALL men" (Titus 2:11).
Are we to believe with the abundance of scriptures referring to all men that the Lord is really speaking of a few, select men?
He would draw ALL MEN to Himself" (John 12:32)
A measure of faith is given to all men. Again, does ALL mean only the Elect? The responsibility of man is to exercise this faith because only by faith can man receive Jesus Christ. Does Jesus receive Jesus for us, or is that our responsibility? To be receptive to the Person of Christ, one must have faith and exercise it.
Once again, Ian Thomas states, "Faith involves that total dependence upon God which produces divine action in man." The apostle John writes that "as many as received Him, to them He gave the right to become children of God, even to those who believe in His name" (John 1:12). Paul inquired of the Galatians, "Did you receive the Spirit by the works of the Law, or by hearing with faith?" (Gal. 3:2). And to the Colossians, Paul admonishes, "As you received Christ Jesus the Lord, so walk in Him...established in your faith" (Col. 2:6,7).
Is the sticking point about the Elect, that Christ also does all the acting on behalf of man so that man plays no part, has no responsibility in his salvation? Is the sticking point, fear of universalism, that if we preach ALL MEN actually does mean ALL men, that you cannot reconcile from Scriptures that man has responsibility? I think that may be it. If you believe that man plays no part in his salvation, (because he is totally depraved), then you cannot say that salvation is for all, as that would mean all men are saved because Christ died for ALL men not just for the elect and if He died for all then He saved all.
I don't believe in Universalism because I believe man has a responsibility to act in faith and receive Jesus Christ. Repenting (turning around from the flesh, the world and Satan) to actively follow Christ.
Now, I think I can understand why some limit salvation to the "elect".
The proponents of Universalism state that no response is needed by ALL men. They emphasize that "Christ died for all." Jesus "died for all, therefore all died;...He died for all" (II Cor. 5:14,15). He "gave Himself a ransom for all" (I Tim. 2:6), to "bring salvation to all men" (Titus 2:11), resulting in "justification of life to all men" (Rom. 5:18). "By the grace of God Jesus tasted death for everyone" (Heb. 2:9), and is therefore "the propitiation for our sins, and for those of the whole world" (I John 2:2).
They take the preceding verses and say regardless if anyone responds, this salvation applies to ALL men. In fact, there is no need to respond.
I believe the Scriptures teach that these verses apply to those who respond. In other words, the reality of salvation is experienced only by those who respond in faith, to receive this salvation (which is the Person of Jesus Christ).
Those who preach an "elect" few, are fearful of the other extreme, "unconditional election, universalism". These are both extremes in my mind. One extreme is atonement for all, while the other one is "limited atonement".
Limited atonement teaches that man has no need to concern himself with responding to God's work in Jesus Christ, for God will see to it that the chosen few who were predetermined in advance will respond as He sees fit in accord with His timing.
Unconditional election is similar in that man has no need to concern himself with responding to God's work in Jesus Christ, for God will see to it that ALL men were predetermined in advance to be saved.
Both of these views omit man's responsibility to act in faith and receive Jesus Christ.
The universalist believes that Jesus died for all men, and therefore all men will respond. The one who limits atonement to an elect group of men believe that Jesus died for particular individuals, and only those particular individuals will respond. Both deny the responsibility of man to respond to God's action in Jesus Christ, for God is made responsible for the extent of man's response that is in line with his predetermined intent.
They are both very similar, in denying man's responsibility.
Great question, Bearmaster! Why evangelize?