The Advantages of the Jews
The Advantages of the Jews "THE ADVANTAGE OF THE JEWS"
By JOHN T. SMITH.
"What advantage then hath the JEW? Or what profit is there of circumcision? Much every way; chiefly, because that unto them were committed the oracles of God." (Romans 3:1-2). For four thousand years there has existed a people— peculiar in their manner of life, and wonderful in the preservation of their identity—who are known to us, and for twenty-five hundred years, recognized in the scriptures, as "Jews." The name "Jew" first appears in 2 Kings 16:6, at about 758 B. C., just before the ten tribes (Kingdom of Israel) went into Assyrian Captivity. At this time it was applied to members of the Kingdom of Judah only. After the Return the word gradually received a larger application, until it ultimately came to include the Hebrew Nation generally, or all the posterity of Abraham—the Hebrew, Matthew 2:2; Acts 13:45. The same people are elsewhere in the Bible called "Israelites" after Jacob—grandson of Abraham—whose name was changed to Israel. However, Abraham is recognized throughout the New Testament as the fountain and head of the Jewish Nation, see Acts 7:2; Matthew 3-9 Also in John 8:31-39. Jesus recognizes the Jews as being Abraham's seed. And in Romans 9:6-7; Romans 11:1; 2 Corinthians 11:22, Paul recognizes the Israelites as being Abraham's seed. Thus as we speak of "Jews" to-day, we mean the posterity of Abraham.
"WHAT ADVANTAGE THEN HATH THE JEW"
During the first two thousand years of the world's history (Sacred History), God dealt with the whole human family, as such; even naming many of the Patriarchs, and giving us a complete genealogy from Adam to Abraham, but, with only a general account of his dealings with them; including this great scope of history only eleven chapters of the Bible—the first eleven chapters of Genesis. This was during what is known as the Patriarchal age, and humanity was subject to the law of Patriarchy. An unwritten law indeed, yet no less a law; and God's only law for man at that time; under which the people worshiped, made sacrifices, paid tithes and practiced circumcision. See Genesis 26:5. That it was from God, is conclusive proof that it was perfect. During this age the people worshipped around the family-altar; the father, head, or patriarch conducting the worship. But with the close of the eleventh chapter of Genesis, God seemingly loses sight of the human family as a whole, so far as any record is concerned, only to refer to them incidentally for the next two thousand years. The twelfth chapter opens with God's selecting and calling one man— Abraham by name—with whose posterity he is to deal thereafter throughout the Old Testament. At the same time, he gave him a very significant promise, saying: "And I will make of thee a great nation, and I will bless thee, and make thy name great; and thou shalt be a blessing: "And I will bless them that bless thee, and curse him that curseth thee: and in thee shall all families of the earth be blessed", (Genesis 12:2-3). Now the promise was not simply that "all families of the earth" should be blessed: but "in thee", or "in thy seed", Genesis 22:18). Paul refers to this promise in (Galatians 3:16) saying: "Now to Abraham and his seed were the promises made. He saith not, And to seeds, as of many; but as of one, And to thy seed, which is Christ." Thus it is clear that the seed promised to Abraham, through which the world was to be blessed, was the Christ. He was to come through Abraham's posterity or blood-line, to redeem the world. No wonder God said, "I will bless thee,—and thou shalt be a blessing." But Abraham being separated from the rest of the human family, didn't alter the law in any respect. Even he was still subject to Patriarchal law.
About twenty-five years after the promise to Abraham, Isaac—the child of promise—was born. When he was 40 years of age, he took Rebecca to wife, to which union two sons were born, namely: Jacob and Esau. To Jacob twelve sons were born. Joseph, the oldest of Rachel's sons, was sold into Egypt; and twenty-two years later all of Israel's family, seventy or seventy-five souls, went down into Egypt. After two hundred and fifteen years of bondage, Moses led the Jews out of Egypt—across the Red Sea—into the wilderness of wanderings. About two months thereafter these same Jews came to Mr, Sinai where they received the law written upon two tables of stone—the first written law ever given to man. This was about 1500 years before Christ, and we call this law the Jewish law, because it was given to the Jews only. It was given four- hundred and thirty years after the promise to Abraham (Galatians 3:17), and though Paul tells us it did not "disannul", or make their promise of none effect, at the same time it did annul or abrogate God's former law, to them, Patriarchy. For obvious reasons God could not have two different laws, for the same people, in effect at the same time. Patriarchy had then been in force twenty-five hundred years. Why must it now be abrogated? Certainly not because of any imperfection, for it was just as perfect for the time and purpose it was given to serve, as either of the laws which succeeded it. But because of the growth and development of the Jews under Patriarchy, inspired by the promise to Abraham; in the providence and wisdom of God it was time to give them a written law: A law adapted to their present conditions and designed to develop that pure blood-line through which the promised seed—Jesus Christ—should come. Hence, just as the promise was to Abraham and his seed, and did not effect the rest of humanity—(Ephesians 2:11-12), just so the law was to his descendants and did not effect anybody else— Deuteronomy 5:2-3. But since the inheritance did not come by obedience to the Jewish law, (Galatians 3:18), what was its object or design? Paul said, "It was added because of transgression, till the seed should come to whom the promise was made." (Galatians 3:19). And again; "So that the law is become our tutor to bring us unto Christ, that we might be justified by faith." (Galatians 3:24). Therefore it is clear that the law given to Moses on Mt. Sinai for the Jews was to last only fifteen hundred years, or until Christ should come; and was therefore to confirm the promise to Abraham. During these fifteen hundred years the Jews had a National worship, conducted by the Priests. They no longer assembled around the family altar, but in the Tabernacle, and later in the Temple—where God had put his name, and where he met with them to own and bless them in their worship.
But, under what law was the rest of the human family —the Gentiles—during these same fifteen hundred years? We have already seen that they were not under the Jewish law. Questions: Were they without any law at all? And if so, what was their condition? Were none saved during these fifteen-hundred years except those to whom the Jewish law was given? If not, why didn't God give the law to all? Did he will the Damnation of some? (Romans 2:11). Or, if some were saved with out the Jewish law, then by what law were they saved? In (Romans 2:12; Romans 2:16), as if replying to these very questions, Paul said: "For as many as have sinned without law shall also perish without law: and as many as have sinned in the law shall be judged by the law"; "In the day when God shall judge the secrets of men by Jesus Christ according to my Gospel." Obviously those who "sinned without law", were the Gentiles. But I ask, how could they sin without law? John says: "Whosoever committeth sin transgresseth also the law: for sin is a transgression of the law", (1 John 3:4), and, Paul says: "for where no law is, there is no transgression", (Romans 4:15). Clearly then, they could not sin without law in some form. Yet some of them sinned, (Romans 2:12; Romans 2:14), therefore they must have had a law. Then what law was it? I answer that it was the same law under which they had lived before the Jewish law was given—Patriarchy, an unwritten law. Hence, when it is said, they "sinned without law", it evidently means without written law. To be sure the Gentiles had perverted and corrupted their law— had added a great deal of tradition to it, still they had some enlightenment by divine truth, and to the extent they knew their law and observed it—They became a law unto themselves. They were not "lawless" or without "law" unto themselves.
After fifteen hundred years, the law of Moses (Acts 13:39), or the law that was given to the Jews, which was to last until the seed should come, was taken out of the way by the death of Christ, Paul said: "Blotting out the handwriting of ordinances that was against us, which was contrary to us, and took it out of the way, nailing it to his cross" (Colossians 2:14). And again, "For he is our peace, who hath made both one, and hath broken down the middle wall of partition between us; having abolished in his flesh the enmity, even the law of commandments contained in ordinances; for to make in himself of twain one new man, so making peace; And that .he might reconcile both unto God in One body by the cross, having slain the enmity thereby." (Ephesians 2:14-16). Hence Christ, by his death, not only put an end to the law given to the Jews, but also made provisions for all—both Jews and Gentiles, that the two might be reconciled unto God in one body. Thus, we read in (Hebrews 2:9) "But we see Jesus, who was made a little lower than the Angels for the suffering of death, crowned with glory and honor r that he by the grace of God should taste Death for every man." See also (2 Corinthians 5:14-15). But this universal provision would have been without profit or power, unless men had been appraised of it. Just as a will or testament is worthless to the beneficiaries therein named so long as they know nothing of it: even so the death of Christ for all men would be without avail if men were not informed or taught about it. Hence, just fifty days after the Passover—at which time our Saviour was put to death, came the Pentecost, (Leviticus 23:15; Leviticus 23:1(5), bringing a baptism of the Holy Spirit upon the Apostles, inspiring them, and enabling them "to speak with other tongues as the Spirit gave them utterance." For the first time in the History of the world, men are taught "to repent and be baptised in .the name of Jesus Christ", (Acts 2:38). Thus a new age was ushered in—the Christian Age; and a new order or new law—"the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus", (Romans 8:2), or Christian law, was given. This new law, in keeping with predictions made by Holy men of God who spake as they were moved by the Holy Ghost, went forth from Jerusalem, (Psalms 02:1-2; Micah 4:1-2). It was given about 33 A. D., and Luke says: "And there were dwelling at Jerusalem Jews, devout men, out of every nation under heaven", (Acts 2:5). Hence Jews and Jews only, were favored with this new law at the time it was given. And not-with-standing the provision made for both Jews and Gentiles by the death of Christ, and the abrogation of the Jewish law in order that both might be reconciled unto God in one body ,and that Peter, by the spirit, announced on Penecost—"The promise is unto you, and to your children, and to all that are afar off". (Acts 2:39), yet the Apostles and early evangelists confined it strictly to the Jews for several years. Indeed there is no account of it having gone to any Gentile prior to the conversion of Cornelius, (Acts 10 th Chapter.) Even then it required a miracle to convince Peter that he should go to the Gentiles: that Christ had broken down the middle wall of partition between them. This was possibly seven or eight years after Pentecost. But, some one may ask: Do we know that Cornelius was the first Gentile brought in under this new law? And I answer, we positively do, See Acts 15:7; Acts 10:28; Acts 11:1-18. But some one may ask: Why had they not gone to the Gentiles before this? And we simply do not know, except that in the wisdom and providence of God the time had not come for them to go until Peter went to Cornelius; For God was directing this work, as is shown by the vision to Peter which caused him to go. Jehovah, by the same vision, could have taught Peter this same lesson of not despising the Gentiles at an earlier date. Then we may with propriety ask: What of the condition of the Gentiles after Pentecost, and before their acceptance at Cornelius' household? And I answer, it was the same as before Pentecost. But, were they without a law from God, without hope, and without any means of Salvation? And I answer no. They were still under Patriarchy, and their condition, as respected their everlasting salvation, the same under their law as that of the Jews under the law of Moses. They were not without hope, only with respect to Jesus Christ. If they had ever been given any hope of Salvation or any grounds for hope—even in the days of Abraham, they certainly had it still, for nothing had been done to take it away.
Then what of Cornelius' condition at the time of Peter's visit? Luke says, be was devout, that he feared God with all his house, gave much alms to the people, and prayed to God alway, (Acts 10:2). Moreover his servants said, he was a righteous man." (Acts 10:22). Hence Cornelius was worshipping and serving God, and keeping his commandments before Peter ever went to his house to preach to him about Jesus Christ. But, you ask, did God recognize the worshippers under! Patriarchy? And I certainly think he did. Was not Balaam a Gentile worshipper and prophet of God? and did not God recognize him as such, putting words in his mouth, and causing him to pronounce a blessing on the Jews even while they were subject to Moses' Law? See Numbers 22; Numbers 23; Numbers 24. And again, did not the prayers and alms of Cornelius—the Gentile—"come up for a memorial before God"? See Acts 10:4. But would Cornelius have been saved had he died before Peter came down from Joppa to his house? And I answer yes, Cornelius was a child of God under Patriarchy, and obviously as perfect as a man could be under his law. Certainly he was not answerable to the Jewish law or to the Christian law, for neither had been given to the Gentiles. He was answerable only to the Patriarchal law, and being a righteous man, was certainly keeping it.
Then what advantage had the Jews over the Gentiles? Paul says: "Much every way." But what was the nature of those advantages? Was the Jew any nearer to God under the Mosaical Law, than the Gentile was under Patriarchy during the same Period? Surely not, only in so far as he was more faithful to his law than the Gentile was to Patriarchy. See (Deuteronomy 10:17; Ephesians 6:9; Ephesians 1 st. Peter 1:17; Colossians 3:25.) Again, when Christianity came, could the Jews be saved on easier terms than the Gentiles? And once more I answer, no. Paul says the Jews are no better than the Gentiles. (Romans 3:9). See, also (Acts 2:36-38 and Acts 10:1-48). Then wherein is the Jew's advantage? "Chiefly because that unto them were committed the Oracles of God", (Romans 3:2). Also (Romans 9:4-5), "Who are Israelites; whose is the adoption, and the glory, and the covenants, and the giving of the law, and the service of God and the promises; Whose are the fathers, and of whom is Christ as concerning the flesh, who is over all, God blessed forever. Amen." Thus their advantages were of a temporal nature, and not with respect to everlasting salvation.
"But we have always heard the case of Cornelius used as an example of the conversion of an alien sinner, and you say he was a child of God." Verily he was a child of God under Patriarchy, but an alien as respected Christianity. In order to become a Christian—to be saved under Christ, he had to do just exactly what an alien has to do to be saved. So did the Jews under the law. However faithful they had been under the law of Moses, they were aliens to Christianity, and in order to become Christians had to believe in Christ, repent, and be baptized. And this is exactly what Cornelius had to do.
